If $m = a_1x + b_1y$ , $n = a_2x + b_2y$ , $a_1b_2 - a_2b_1 = 1$ then prove that $\gcd (m,n) = \gcd (x, y)$
My attempt
Let $c = \gcd (x,y)$ and $d = \gcd (m,n)$ then $c \mid d$
$\frac{d}{c} = \gcd (a_1k + b_1l, a_2k + b_2l) = \gcd \big(k(a_1 + a_2) + l(b_1 + b_2) , a_2k + b_2l \big)$ where $k = \frac{x}{c}$ and $l = \ \frac{y}{c}$
Two observations at this point are that $ \gcd (k, l) = 1$ and $\gcd (a_1 + a_2, a_2) = \gcd (b_1 + b_2, b_2) = 1$
At this point my proof will be complete if I can prove that $\frac{d}{c} = 1$ and hence $d = c$. Unfortunately I don't know how to to do this, so I would appreciate any help.
Update: I thank you all for your answers, although admittedly I don't have enough experience to understand things like Cramer's rule (I guess I'll come back to it once I learn linear algebra).