I would please appreciate help showing: For $m$ a fixed integer
$\sum_{j=0}^\infty \frac{j+1}{m^{-js}}$ converges to $\frac{1}{(1-m^{-s})^2}$
There is a hint to treat the sum as a power series in $m^{-s}$.
A power series in $m^{-s}$ itself would converge to $\frac{m^s}{m^s-1}$ (for $m^s>1$).
Even if this is correct, that's as far as I could get, although the $(1-m^{-s})^{-2}$ looks like a derivative was taken.
Thanks