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I would please appreciate help showing: For $m$ a fixed integer

$\sum_{j=0}^\infty \frac{j+1}{m^{-js}}$ converges to $\frac{1}{(1-m^{-s})^2}$

There is a hint to treat the sum as a power series in $m^{-s}$.

A power series in $m^{-s}$ itself would converge to $\frac{m^s}{m^s-1}$ (for $m^s>1$).

Even if this is correct, that's as far as I could get, although the $(1-m^{-s})^{-2}$ looks like a derivative was taken.

Thanks

  • @labbhattacharjee Well this is embarrassing. Believe me, I went through all the linked similar questions as I was writing this, hoping to find a comparable. If I had used $n$ rather than $j$ as an index, I would have found it. –  Jul 14 '16 at 14:49

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The identity $$ |x|<1\quad\Longrightarrow\quad \frac{1}{(1-x)^2}=\sum_{j\geq 0}(j+1)\,x^j $$ follows from stars and bars. Just set $x=\frac{1}{m^s}$.

Jack D'Aurizio
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