While dealing with a question with finding an explicit form for a sequence I noticed something:
$$\sum_{x_0=0}^{n-1} 1=\frac{n}{1!}$$
$$\sum_{x_0=0}^{n-1} \sum_{x_1=0}^{x_0-1} 1=\frac{n(n-1)}{2!}$$
$$\sum_{x_0=0}^{n-1} \sum_{x_1=0}^{x_0-1} \sum_{x_2=0}^{x_1-1} 1= \frac{n(n-1)(n-2)}{3!}$$
$$\sum_{x_0=0}^{n-1} \sum_{x_1=0}^{x_0-1} \sum_{x_2=0}^{x_1-1} \sum_{x_3=0}^{x_2-1} 1= \frac{n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)}{4!}$$ ...
Question:
How can I prove the pattern I am seeing?
I'm thinking about induction in which case the base case is proved. But then assuming $p(n)$ is true I need to show $p(n+1)$ is true. But how can I write $p(n)$ as notation is troubling me, and how can I go from there.
$$f_{k+1}(m)=\sum_{n=0}^{m-1}f_k(n)$$
– Simply Beautiful Art Jun 30 '16 at 16:23