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$[a,b]$ has an open cover then every point of this interval is covered in an open set. Since a is in an open set some neighborhood of a is a subset of that set. Say $[a,a+r_1) \subset O_i $ similarly $[a+r_1,a+r_1+r_2)\subset O_j$. Going like this we can reach a $r_n$ such that $b \in [a+r_1...r_n,a+r_1....r_{n+1})$ Radius of these neighborhoods are real numbers greater than zero. $M=min(r_1,r_2...r_{n+1}))$ It is obvious that $n+1 \le \frac{b-a}{M}$ Then n is clearly finite and even if these neighborhoods belong to different open sets number of open sets are finite then every open cover has a finite subcover. Then [a,b] is compact.

It is really easy to show that a compact subset of R is closed and bounded.

My argument seems to be correct but shouldn't this work for intervals (a,b) or [a,b)? Some say that a sequence of real numbers doesn't add up to any number. But since [a,b] is closed a neighborhood of b is also in those open sets. What I mean is we can always add whatever is missing in this case.

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    There's no guarantee that given a sequence of positive real numbers ${r_i}$ you'll eventually get a sum that's greater than $b-a$. – T.J. Gaffney Jun 27 '16 at 21:34
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    Can this happen? $a=0, b=10, r_n=2^{-n}$ for all $n$ – GEdgar Jun 27 '16 at 21:35
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    There $r_n$ may be infinite and and $\min(r_i)$ may not exist if $r_i \rightarrow 0$ so no, this is not a proof and it does fail for open sets. In fact it fails for closed sets. – fleablood Jun 27 '16 at 21:47
  • As GEdgar points out if $r_n = (1/2)^n$ what is $\min (r_n) = \min(1/2^n)$? The min does not exist but $\inf(1/2^n) = 0$ so.... But you have proven (I think) that if it does fail then $r_n \rightarrow 0$. (I think). – fleablood Jun 27 '16 at 21:49
  • M , as defined, cannot be guaranteed to exist unless n is assumed to be finite. But the finiteness of n is what you are trying to prove. – DanielWainfleet Jun 28 '16 at 19:52

2 Answers2

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The comments have already explained where your argument breaks down; here's an example of an open cover of a non-compact set, with no finite subcover, which hopefully makes things clear:

Consider the following sequence of open intervals: $U_n=(0, 1-{1\over n+1})$. Clearly $\{U_n: n\in\mathbb{N}\}$ is an open cover of $(0, 1)$; however, the corresponding $r$-values are $$r_1={1\over 2}, r_{n+1}={1\over n+1}-{1\over n+2}.$$ It's easy to see (and you should check this) that while $\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\sum^n_1r_i=1$, no finite sum of the $r_i$s equals or exceeds $1$. This is why $\{U_n\}$ has no finite subcover.

Noah Schweber
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  • I am trying to visualize what you are saying. For example (-1,1-1/n) is an open cover of [0,1) and in that case as our point gets closer and closer to 1 $r_n \rightarrow 0$. However since I am talking about [0,1] 1 is also in an open set and some neighborhood of 1 with radius $R$ is also in an open set. – A. Yekta Ökten Jun 27 '16 at 22:19
  • So after some k $[a+r_1..r_k,a+r_1...a+r_{k+1}) \subset (1-R,1]$. Then we can remove $r_n$'s after $r_k$ and just add the neighborhood of 1. I get what you are saying but I believe that since this is a closed interval my argument should be valid. I just don't know how to show that if some $r_i \rightarrow 0$ then the interval containing it should be a subset of another where $r_j \rightarrow \alpha \quad \alpha \in R^{+}$ – A. Yekta Ökten Jun 27 '16 at 22:19
  • I now get why this shouldn't work for open intervals. – A. Yekta Ökten Jun 27 '16 at 22:21
  • @A.YektaÖkten Your argument is "valid" in the sense that for a compact set like $[0, 1]$, there will indeed always exist a finite sequence of intervals the sum of whose $r_i$s is "big enough." However, this takes proof, and that's exactly what the proof of the Heine-Borel theorem is. In this sense, your argument is not valid because it is unjustified in one (very crucial) step. That is, your claim is valid, but your argument is not. – Noah Schweber Jun 27 '16 at 22:22
  • So if I can show that $[c,c+r_i) \in (d-r_j,d] where r_i \rightarrow 0 but r_j$ is a positive real number, then I can prove that there exists a minimum and prove my claim right. I am new at this and studying Rudin's book. I feel like his proofs and theorems don't have a meaning it is just like lecture notes so I am trying to find new proofs but Heine-Borel theorem is hard. I think if I can prove this for $R$ then I can prove it for $R^k$ by induction. Thanks a lot. – A. Yekta Ökten Jun 27 '16 at 22:30
  • @A.YektaÖkten I do not understand the claim in your first sentence at all. I think you should try to make your claim completely precise. Think of it like computer programming: you might know what you mean, but the computer (us) doesn't until you write it well; and in fact you may not know completely what you mean until you write it down clearly. Re: Rudin's theorems and proofs, I don't know the context of your objection but they are definitely meaningful; it might be more helpful if you explained where exactly you are getting stuck. I'm going to sleep now, but others may have useful comments. – Noah Schweber Jun 27 '16 at 22:38
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Heine Borel Theorem was discovered much later than other forms of completeness of real number system and it is a very powerful and non-intuitive result about closed intervals. Therefore it is reasonable to expect that it does not have an obvious or trivial proof.

Your approach fails primarily because it is not guaranteed that the numbers $a,r_{1}, r_{2}, \ldots, r_{n}$ add up to something more than $b$. Moreover this kind of result fails for open intervals. Let $I = (0, 1)$ and let $I_{x} = (x/2, 3x/2)$ so that $ x\in I_{x}$ and the set of all intervals $I_{x}$ where $x \in (0, 1)$ forms an open cover for $I$. Clearly if we take any finite number of intervals $I_{x}$, say $I_{x_{1}}, I_{x_{2}}, \ldots, I_{x_{n}}$ and we reorder these intervals so that $x_{1}$ is the least among $x_{i}$'s then clearly these finite number of intervals don't cover any point lying in $(0, x_{1}/2) \subseteq I = (0, 1)$.


Finding proofs for Heine Borel is not too difficult. As I mentioned it is equivalent to the completeness property of real numbers, we can just pick any property and try to derive Heine Borel Theorem.

Easiest approach is via Dedekind's theorem or via supremum principle. I give an approach based on Bolzano Weierstrass Theorem.

There is a two step process involved. First we reduce any cover to a countable subcover and then reduce countable cover to a finite subcover. The first step holds for any set of real numbers and is known as:

Lindelof Covering Theorem: If $A$ is a set of real numbers and $\mathcal{C}$ is a collection of open sets $S$ such that for each $x \in A$ there is an $S \in \mathcal{C}$ such that $x \in S$, then there is a countable collection of sets $\mathcal{D} = \{S_{1}, S_{2}, \ldots\}\subseteq \mathcal{C}$ such that each point $x \in A$ lies in some $S_{k}$.

The idea is to start with the countable collection $\mathcal{B} = \{B_{1}, B_{2}\,\ldots\}$ where $B_{k}$ is an interval of type $(c - h, c + h)$ where $c, h$ are rational and $h$ is positive. By the countability of rationals it is clear that $\mathcal{B}$ is countable.

Now let $x \in A$ so that there is an open set $S \in \mathcal{C}$ such that $x \in S$. Now $S$ is open so there is a neighborhood $I$ of $x$ with $I \subseteq S$. It is possible to choose this $I$ of the form $B_{k}$ (why??). Hence for each $x \in A$ there is a $B_{k}\in \mathcal{B}$ such that $x \in B_{k}\subseteq S \in \mathcal{C}$. Now we can see that $A$ is covered by a countable number of $B_{k}$ and we can choose corresponding sets $S$ from $\mathcal{C}$ to form a countable subcover for $A$.


Now let $A = [a, b]$ and by previous argument if $\mathcal{C}$ is an open cover for $A$ then there is a countable sub-cover for $A$. Let $S_{1}, S_{2}, \ldots $ from $\mathcal{C}$ cover $A$.

Assume on the contrary that no finite number of $S_{i}$ covers $A$. Thus we have a sequence $x_{n}$ of points (and we can choose them to be distinct) such that $x_{n} \notin \bigcup_{i = 1}^{n}S_{i}$. These points $x_{n}$ form an infinite set and they lie in $[a, b]$ so by Bolzano Weierstrass theorem they have an accumulation point $c \in [a, b]$. Clearly $c$ lies in some $S_{k}$. But then since $c$ is an accumulation point and $S_{k}$ is open there is a point $x_{n}$ with $n > k$ such that $x_{n} \in S_{k} \subseteq \bigcup_{i = 1}^{n}S_{i}$. This is the contradiction we need to prove that a finite number of $S_{i}$ cover $A = [a, b]$.

The above proof clearly demonstrates why Heine Borel Theorem does not hold if the set is not "closed and bounded". Clearly if the set is unbounded the Bolzano Weierstrass can't be applied to guarantee the accumulation point $c$ of $x_{i}$'s. If it is not closed then we can't guarantee that $c$ lies in the set being considered.

  • thanks i used a similar approach to this theorem. if i can prove that where $ k \rightarrow n \land r_k \rightarrow 0 \implies [a+r_1..r_n,a+r_1....r_{n+1}) \subset (c-R,c] \quad R \in R^{+} $ i will be able to show that this set can be covered by a finite number of intervals. I have shown that all points of $[a,b]$ needs to in a collection of open intervals I just couldn't show that they are finite. I am reading Baby Rudin but I feel like the ideas don't have a meaning it looks like lecture notes. So I am trying alternate approaches. I am pretty new at this, thank you so much. – A. Yekta Ökten Jun 28 '16 at 16:24
  • @A.YektaÖkten: Personally I don't like Rudin (it looks more like a course textbook not designed for the joy of reading math). It is better to read classics like Hardy. Or perhaps Apostol, Courant and even Spivak will do. Most of my knowledge of real analysis comes from these books. – Paramanand Singh Jun 28 '16 at 19:32