Let $0<q<1$ be rational. I am suspecting that $\sqrt[n]{(1+q^n)^2}$ is irrational. Can someone please help me to prove or to disprove this?
- $n=1$ and $n=2$ are simple cases. I am interested in $n>2$.
Let $0<q<1$ be rational. I am suspecting that $\sqrt[n]{(1+q^n)^2}$ is irrational. Can someone please help me to prove or to disprove this?
Suppose $(1+q^n)^2=p^n$, $p\in\mathbb Q$. Let $q=\frac ab$, $p=\frac cd$ with $\gcd(a,b)=\gcd(c,d)=1$. We have
$$d^n(a^n+b^n)^2=b^{2n}c^n.$$
If $n$ is odd, then $c$ and $d$ are squares, so we get $x^n+y^n=z^n$ for some $x,y,z\in\mathbb Z$. If $n>1$ Fermat's Last Theorem says $q=0$.
If $n=2m$ is even, then $(da^2)^m+(db^2)^m=(b^2c)^m$. If $n>4$, Fermat's Last Theorem says $q=0$.
As for $n=4$, note that $d\mid b^2$, say $b^2=kd$, to get $a^4+b^4=(kc)^2$. Fermat proved that this has no non-trivial solutions. See e.g. this post:
${\;\;\;\;\;\;\;}$ $x^4 + y^4 = z^2$
Remark: Unlike some funny applications of Fermat's Last Theorem to similar problems (such as in this proof that $\sqrt[3]2$ is irrational) here it is really necessary to invoke it. For suppose $x^n+y^n=z^n$ is a non-trivial counterexample to FLT, then $\sqrt[n]{(1+\frac xy)^2}=(\frac zy)^2$.