I started Ring theory recently and I came across this statement while reading polynomial rings..
If $F$ is an infinite field and let $f(x)\in F[x]$ . If $f(a)=0$ for infinitely many elements $a$ of $F$, then $f(x)=0$
I have the following doubt. Take $\Bbb{Q}$ as the infinite field. Now define $$f(x)=\prod_{i=1}^{\infty} (x-i)$$
Since (as far as I know , but I may be wrong!) the degree of polynomials need not necessarily be finite, $f(x)$ is polynomial $\in \Bbb{Q}[x]$ and $f(a)=0$ for infinitely many elements in $\Bbb{Q}$. So where am I making a mistake?