I have proceeded to as far as declaring these with EEA but I do not know how to show that $d \mid c$ for the conclusion. Any help to go to this direction will be greatly appreciated.
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1Three answers, two down-votes, and I'm the only one who's up-voted the question so far, even though I haven't answered it. Why was it downvoted? $\qquad$ – Michael Hardy Jun 22 '16 at 22:08
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No idea. I was going to comment to ask what "declaring these with EEA" actually meant in practical terms. - so @Reginsmal can you enlighten me? – Joffan Jun 22 '16 at 22:36
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Use Gauß's lemma:
If $d\mid bc$ and $\gcd(d,b)=1$, then $d\mid c$.

Bernard
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@Michael Hardy: I feel like here are some temperamental people on this site… I've added my own upvote. – Bernard Jun 22 '16 at 22:17
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Note that $d \mid a$ because $\gcd(a,bc) = d$.
We need $d \mid c$ as well, as you state. We know that $d \mid bc$ so that $bc = Ad$ for some $A$.
Then there are $C,D$ such that $Ca + Db = 1$, by $\gcd(a,b) = 1$.
So $Cac + Dbc = c$ and so $Cac + DAd = c$, using $bc = Ad$.
As $d \mid a$, $d$ divides $Cac$ and $DAd$, and hence their sum as well. So $d$ divides $c$, as required.

Henno Brandsma
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We know that $d \mid a$. However, since $\gcd(a,b) = 1$, we also know that $b$ and $d$ share no common factors (that is, $\gcd(d,b) = 1$).
Then, since we also know that $d \mid bc$, it must also be that $d \mid c$.

Joffan
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@MichaelHardy Not guilty of a downvote :-) - is there some convention that says anyone answering should upvote the question? – Joffan Jun 22 '16 at 22:37
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I don't think it's a convention, but it seems to me a question worth answering is almost always worth up-voting. $\qquad$ – Michael Hardy Jun 22 '16 at 22:40