10

Evaluate

$$ \lim _{n \to \infty}\sin(\pi\sqrt {n^2+0.5n+1}), $$ where $n\in \mathbf{N}$. This is how I solved: $$ \begin{align} &\lim _{n \to \infty}\sin(n\pi\sqrt {1+0.5/n+1/n^2})\\ &= \sin(n\pi)\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\small\color{grey}[{since \sqrt {1+0.5/n+1/n^2} = 1 , as\,\,n\to\infty]}\\ &=0 \end{align} $$ But the actual answer is $\frac{1}{\sqrt2}$ or $\frac{-1}{\sqrt2}$ depending on whether n is even or odd .

Priyanka
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  • actually n cant be even or odd, since that would imply that infinity is even or odd.(which i'd like to see a proof of) the answer to your limit is: sin(bla) diverges – SAJW Jun 17 '16 at 08:50
  • Evaluate a simpler limit: $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\sin\Big(\pi(2n+{1\over2})\Big)$. See, it is pretty much the same: ${2n+{1\over2}\over2n}\to1$, so it should be (or should it not?) $\sin(2\pi n)$, which is 0. And yet every single term is exactly 1. We just deduced that a sequence of all $1$'s tends to $0$. That's when one has to stop and look back... – Ivan Neretin Jun 17 '16 at 08:57
  • It's not a good idea to write $\sqrt {1+0.5/n+1/n^2} = 1 $ as $n\to\infty,$ since it's false. – zhw. Jun 17 '16 at 09:03
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    @zhw: more precisely, this equality is true (with notational looseness), but cannot be used as a justification of the claim. –  Jun 17 '16 at 09:23
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    @YvesDaoust Writing $\sqrt {1+0.5/n+1/n^2} = 1$ is too loose for me. – zhw. Jun 17 '16 at 10:02
  • The answers here are correct, but don't seem to get to the crux of the author's problem. The problem is that you can't approximate the sqrt to only O(1) terms because it's later multiplied by an O(n) term. You need to include at least O(1/n^2) terms as these will become O(1) post sqrt and multiplication, and so not disappear in the limit. – Dan Jun 17 '16 at 10:52
  • In step by step evaluation of limits it is not possible in general to replace a sub-expression by its limit and here replacing the square root stuff with $1$ is an invalid step. But there are situations where such replacements are valid and you need to be careful. see http://math.stackexchange.com/a/1783818/72031 for more details. – Paramanand Singh Jun 24 '16 at 04:13
  • How did you get the value zero at the end? – LearningMath Jul 26 '17 at 12:45
  • @IvanNeretin How is the limit of $\sin(2\pi n)$ zero? – LearningMath Jul 26 '17 at 13:03
  • @LearningMath Well, by definition, just like that. Every single term is 0, so what can be the limit? – Ivan Neretin Jul 26 '17 at 13:57
  • @IvanNeretin How is every term zero when $n \to \infty$? – LearningMath Jul 26 '17 at 14:37
  • @LearningMath Did you find any term which is not 0? – Ivan Neretin Jul 26 '17 at 17:02
  • @IvanNeretin Yes. For example: $$\sin \frac{2\pi}{3} = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$$ – LearningMath Jul 26 '17 at 17:59
  • @IvanNeretin Oh, I apologize for not seeing the $n \in \mathbb{N}$ part. It's ok now :) – LearningMath Jul 26 '17 at 18:06

5 Answers5

10

For large $n$,

$$\sqrt{n^2+\frac n2+1}=n\sqrt{1+\frac1{2n}+\frac1{n^2}}\approx n\left(1+\frac1{4n}\right)=n+\frac14.$$ to the first order.

Then the expression tends to $\pm\dfrac1{\sqrt2}$ depending on the parity of $n$ so that the limit cannot exist.

9

Doing almost what you did $$\sqrt{n^2+\frac{n}{2}+1}=n \sqrt{1+\frac{1}{2 n}+\frac{1}{n^2}}$$ Now, using Taylor expansion or generalized binomial theorem $$\sqrt{1+\frac{1}{2 n}+\frac{1}{n^2}}=1+\frac{1}{4 n}+O\left(\frac{1}{n^2}\right)$$ which makes $$\sin \left(\pi \sqrt{n^2+\frac{n}{2}+1}\right)\sim \sin(n\pi+\frac \pi 4)$$ from which you can conclude.

5

The situation is more delicate than you think. For example, $1+1/\sqrt n \to 1,$ yet $\sin(n\pi((1+1/\sqrt n))$ has no limit. In fact this sequence is dense in $[-1,1].$

Hint: $\sqrt {1+u} = 1 + u/2 + o(u)$ as $u\to 0.$

zhw.
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4

Alternatively:

The function $$\sqrt{x^2+\frac x2+1}\sim x$$ has an oblique asymptote and

$$\lim_{x\to\infty}\sqrt{x^2+\frac x2+1}-x=\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\frac x2+1}{\sqrt{x^2+\frac x2+1}+x}=\frac14$$ so that the asymptote is

$$y=x+\frac14$$ and $$\lim_{x\to\infty}\sqrt{x^2+\frac x2+1}-\left(x+\frac14\right)=0.$$

So the given function converges to a sinusoid with a phase of $\dfrac\pi4$. This is enough to conclude.

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4

The general reasoning problem

The problem with your reasoning is that you've assumed that the limit exists. Under this assumption, all your steps are valid. But since the assumption is incorrect, the conclusion may or may not be true. And the fact that the conclusion is not true implies that the assumption was not valid.

All the rules about limits and operations ($\lim (f \cdot g) = (\lim f) \cdot (\lim g)$, that kind of thing) are valid if all the limits exists. If the limits don't exist, you need to be more careful.

In fact, those rules are more precise than that: you can use them to prove that a limit exists, but only in one direction. For example, if $f$ and $g$ both have a limit, then their product also has a limit, and the limit of the product is the product of the limit. In mathematical notation, if $\lim f$ exists and $\lim g$ exists then $\lim (f \cdot g)$ exists and $\lim (f \cdot g) = (\lim f) \cdot (\lim g)$. The converse is not true: it's possible for $\lim (f \cdot g)$ to exists but not $\lim f$ and $\lim g$. (Trivial example: if $f=0$ then $\lim (0 \cdot g)$ exists for any $g$, whether $\lim g$ exists or not.)

If you don't know yet whether a limit exists, you can often prove its existence and calculate its value at the same time, but you need to be careful. It's common to write $$\begin{align} \lim(f) &= \textsf{something} \\ &= \textsf{something else} \\ \end{align}$$ Strictly speaking, this should mean “$\lim(f)$ exists, and its value is equal to $\textsf{something}$, which is equal to $\textsf{something}$”. There is a common abuse of notation that makes it mean “$\lim(f)$ exists and has the value $\textsf{something}$ if $\textsf{something}$ is well-defined, and $\textsf{something}$ is well-defined and equal to $\textsf{something else}$ if $\textsf{something else}$ is well-defined”. That's perfectly fine, the logic works out, as long as you remember that when you go from one line to the next, you can only apply rules such that if the next step is well-defined then the previous step is also well-defined. You can't apply rules that assume that the previous step is well-defined.

The specific reasoning problem

In this case, the rule that you applied to show that $\lim_{n \to \infty} \sin(n\pi\sqrt {1+0.5/n+1/n^2}) = \lim_{n \to \infty} \sin(n\pi)$ really only says that the left-hand side exists if the right-hand side exists, so you need to show that the right-hand side exists. Let's look at this step more closely:

  1. $\lim_{n\to\infty} \sqrt {1+0.5/n+1/n^2} = 1$
  2. $\lim_{n\to\infty} n \pi = +\infty$
  3. Let $h(n) = n \pi \sqrt {1+0.5/n+1/n^2}$. By applying the limit-of-a-product rule to (1.) and (2.), we get get $\lim_{n\to\infty} h(n) = +\infty$
  4. Now we'd like to go from $\lim_{n\to\infty} h(n) = \lim_{n\to\infty} n \pi$ to $\lim_{n\to\infty} \sin (h(n)) = \lim_{n\to\infty} \sin (n \pi)$. This would be true by the composition rule if $\sin$ had a limit at $+\infty$, but this is not the case, so we're stuck. Note that $\sin$ is a function from real numbers to real numbers. There is a limit if you restrict the domain to values of the form $n\pi$ for $n\in\mathbb{N}$, but that fact does not extend to values of the form $h(n)$.

The fact that the limit does not exists shows that step 4 is a genuine problem and not just a difficulty in justifying the reasoning. We're stuck because we're trying to prove something that is false.

The mathematical theory to understand this function

The sequence you're looking at does not have a limit. It has two limit points $1/\sqrt{2}$ and $-1/\sqrt{2}$. Similarly, for the function $\sin$ at $+\infty$, all the real numbers in the range $[-1,1]$ are limit points.

Intuitively speaking, a limit point is a limit of a “part” of the sequence or function. A limit means that the values get arbitrarily close to the target, no matter how you approach the target. A limit point means that the values get arbitrarily close to the target, but only for a particular way of approaching the target.

If there's a limit, then it's a limit point, and it's the only one. If there's more than one limit point, there can't be a limit. If there's a single limit point, in general this doesn't imply that there's a limit (this is true in compact spaces, but not in general — in fact, for metric spaces, that property characterizes compact spaces).

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    I think that the OP's reasoning is completely wrong, not only because they fail to check existence. They seem to use the pseudo-theorem "you can replace any subexpression with its limit", which is false. – Federico Poloni Jun 17 '16 at 20:17
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    Thank you Gilles for your clear explanation. It looks like it resolved the issue. Though all the solutions given by other authors are also correct , your explanation directly addresses the core issue. – Priyanka Jun 18 '16 at 06:32
  • How did you find the limits points? Wolfram Alpha says that the limit is between $-1$ and $1$. – LearningMath Jul 26 '17 at 12:50