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So this is in exercise 3.14 (Neat!) in Baby Rudin, which I have found quite a simple and obvious proof for, however when I checked the answers the proofs I found were quite complicated so now I am a bit skeptical of my own proof. So can someone check it out?

The question is:

If $\{s_n\}$ is a complex sequence, define its arithmetic mean $\sigma_n$ by $$ \sigma_n=\frac{s_0+s_1+...+s_n}{n+1}$$ If $\lim s_n=s$ prove that $\lim \sigma_n = s$

Now here is my solution:


For all $\frac{\epsilon}{2}>0$ we can find a positive integer $N$ such that $n\geq N$ implies $|s_n-s|<\frac{\epsilon}{2}$

and thus $|\frac{s_0+...+s_n+...s_n+m}{n+m+1}-s|$=$$|\frac{s_0+...+s_{n-1}-ns_n}{n+m+1}+\frac{(s_n-s)+(s_{n+1}-s)+...+(s_{n+m}-s)}{n+m+1}|$$

$$\leq |\frac{s_0+...+s_{n-1}-ns_n}{n+m+1}|+\frac{(s_n-s)+(s_{n+1}-s)+...+(s_{n+m}-s)}{n+m+1}|$$

Now we can take $m$ to be large enough such that $|\frac{s_0+...+s_{n-1}-ns_n}{n+m+1}|<\frac{\epsilon}{2}$ and thus we have: $$|\frac{s_0+...+s_n+...s_n+m}{n+m+1}-s|<\epsilon$$

and we're done.


Can anyone tell me where the mistake is (if there is any)

H_Hassan
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    this looks very similar to this problem: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1821569/show-that-lim-n-to-infty-frac1n-sum-k-0n-x-k-x-if-x-n-to-x/1821588?noredirect=1#comment3729106_1821588 The other problem I had assumed was for a real variable and not a complex variable, but the logic should be similar. – Doug M Jun 13 '16 at 23:38
  • @DougM thanks a lot, I tried looking for duplicates before searching but I couldn't find one. I guess by the comments and answers over there my proof seems to be correct. – H_Hassan Jun 13 '16 at 23:43

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