What is $$\lim _{ x\rightarrow 1 }{ \frac { x\log { \left( x \right) -x+1 } }{ \left( x-1 \right) \log { \left( x \right) } } } $$ Note I have used $\lim _{ x\rightarrow 0 }{ \frac { \log { \left( 1+x \right) } }{ x } } =1$ . So I wrote $\log(x)=\log(1+x-1)$ and hence I got $\frac{x^2-2x+1}{x-1}$ after cancelling I got the value as $0$. But the correct answer is $\frac{1}{2}$. Where's my mistake? Any hint. I don't want Lhospital rule or Taylor series if they aren't compulsory to work out the answer .
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You forgot the $\ln x$ in the denominator. Anyways I tried without L'Hospital but the limit came out to be $1$. With L'Hospital however the limit is $1/2$. – Kushal Bhuyan Jun 13 '16 at 15:22
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Yes there's a very minor problem we all are missing on.We need to find it – Archis Welankar Jun 13 '16 at 15:24
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Why ban the use of L'Hôpital and Taylor if you do not show first so that your given limit is equal to $1$ ? – Piquito Jun 13 '16 at 17:11
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See I have written that I may like to ignore them if by some manipulations we could get the answer I haven't put any ban – Archis Welankar Jun 13 '16 at 17:23
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To answer your question "where is my mistake", it occurs where you said "hence I got". The latter limit $\left(\frac{x^2-2x+1}{x-1}\right)$ is not equivalent to the former. But since I have no idea how you arrived at the latter limit from the given information, I can't tell you exactly what mistake you made. – Paul Sinclair Jun 13 '16 at 20:03
4 Answers
Now with editing this gives a solution using only the limit $\lim\limits_{y\to 0}\frac{e^{y}-1}{y}=1$. Start by setting $x=e^y$, you get $$\lim\limits_{y\to 0}\frac{ye^y-e^y+1}{(e^y-1)y}$$ Multiply by $\lim\limits_{y\to 0}\frac{e^y-1}{y}=1$ to get $$\lim\limits_{y\to 0}\frac{ye^y-e^y+1}{y^2}= \lim\limits_{y\to 0}\frac{e^y-1}{y}+\frac{1+y-e^y}{y^2}=1-L$$ Where $$L=\lim\limits_{y\to 0}\frac{e^y-1-y}{y^2}$$
Now using l'Hopital twice (while we try to think of another way) we see $L=\frac{1}{2}$.
To avoid l'Hopital
Write $$\lim\limits_{y\to 0}\frac{e^y-1-y}{y^2}=L$$
Then $$\lim\limits_{y\to 0}\frac{e^{-y}-1+y}{y^2}=L$$ adding $$\lim\limits_{y\to 0}\frac{e^{-y}+e^y-2}{y^2}=2L$$
Now on the other hand
$$\lim\limits_{y\to 0}\frac{e^{y}-1}{y}=1$$ and $$\lim\limits_{y\to 0}\frac{e^{-y}-1}{y}=-1$$
and multiplying them together $$\lim\limits_{y\to 0}\frac{2-e^{-y}-e^y}{y^2}=-1$$
It follows that $2L=1$.

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But you assumed that limit $L$ exists. Does it really exist? http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1729165/if-we-assume-limit-exists-and-then-if-we-find-a-number-for-this-limit-how-can-w – student forever Jun 15 '16 at 16:32
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@studentforever Yeah people ALWAYS ask this question, NO, they never bother to check that by simple algebra one can show that it's increasing for small values of $x$. But there you go, what can you do about it ? Anyway do you see anyone else giving a solution that doesnt use Taylor, or L'Hopital or some other crutch ? – Rene Schipperus Jun 17 '16 at 02:28
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One way to avoid L'Hospital and Taylor is available at http://math.stackexchange.com/a/1835516/72031 – Paramanand Singh Jun 22 '16 at 10:28
HINT
Put $x-1=h $
As x goes to $1$, h goes to $0$. Then use expansion for $log(1+h)$ in numerator and result you stated in your attempt in denominator
$lim_{h \to0} \frac{(1+h)log(1+h) - h}{hlog(1+h)}$
$lim_{h \to0} \frac{(1+h)log(1+h) - h}{h^2}$
$lim_{h \to0} \frac{(1+h)(h-\frac{h^2}{2} + ...) - h}{h^2}$

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Note I didn't down vote .Makes sense but I wrote not to use Taylor series. But still thanks and $(+1)$ – Archis Welankar Jun 13 '16 at 14:31
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One thing is strange is that if i use $\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{log(1+h)}{h}$ in both numerator and denominator answer comes out to be $1$.. – Gathdi Jun 13 '16 at 15:13
It makes sense substituting $x=t+1$, so the limit becomes $$ \lim_{t\to0}\frac{(1+t)\log(1+t)-t}{t\log(1+t)} $$ With a Taylor expansion it is quite easy: $$ \log(1+t)=t-\frac{t^2}{2}+o(t^2) $$ so $$ (1+t)\log(1+t)-t= (1+t)\left(t-\frac{t^2}{2}+o(t^2)\right)-t= \frac{t^2}{2}+o(t^2) $$ and the denominator can be written $t\log(1+t)=t(t+o(t))=t^2+o(t^2)$.
Therefore $$ \lim_{t\to0}\frac{(1+t)\log(1+t)-t}{t\log(1+t)} = \lim_{t\to0}\frac{\dfrac{t^2}{2}+o(t^2)}{t^2+o(t^2)}=\frac{1}{2} $$
You can also use l'Hôpital, but first rewrite the limit as $$ \lim_{t\to0}\frac{(1+t)\log(1+t)-t}{t\log(1+t)} = \lim_{t\to0}\frac{(1+t)\log(1+t)-t}{t^2}\,\frac{t}{\log(1+t)} $$ The limit of the first factor becomes $$ \lim_{t\to0}\frac{(1+t)\log(1+t)-t}{t^2}\;\overset{\mathrm{(H)}}{=}\; \lim_{t\to0}\frac{\log(1+t)}{2t}=\frac{1}{2} $$ The second factor has limit $1$.

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The problem is quite easy using Taylor and L’Hôpital but the O.P. wishes this way forbidden so the question becomes, at least for me, something difficult. Anyway, here a method of approximation to solve the question (especially when it is knowing that the limit is $\frac 12$):
Let $E$ be the given expression. We have $$E=\frac{x}{x-1}-\frac{1}{\ln(x)}$$ Put $x=t+1$ so we have $$E=\frac{t+1}{t}-\frac{1}{\ln(t+1)}=1+f(t)$$ where $$f(t)=\frac{1}{t}-\frac{1}{\ln(1+t)}$$ The domain of $f$ is $(-1,0)\cup (0,\infty)$ however if the searched limit exists then prolonging by continuity we know the function $f$ can be considered as continuous on $(-1, \infty)$. The derivative is $$f’(t)=-\frac{1}{t^2}+\frac{1}{\ln^2(1+t)}\gt 0$$ so the function is deduced to be increasing on its domain. Now, calculating some values in the neighborhood of $t=0$ $$ f(0.01)\approx -0.499170\\ f(0.001)\approx -0.499916\\f(0.0001)\approx -0.499991\\ f(-0.01)\approx -0.500837\\f(-0.001)\approx -0.500083\\f(-0.0001)\approx -0.500008$$ Knowing that the limit exists, that $f$ is continuous for $x\gt -1$ and increasing, we can conclude, that this limit indeed is equal to ${\frac {-1}{2}}$. Thus $$\lim_{t\to 0}E=1-\frac 12=\color{red}{\frac 12}$$

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