My lab friends always play a mentally challenging brain game every month to keep our mind running on all four cylinders and the last month challenge was to find a novelty expression for $\pi$. In order to stick to the rule, of course we must avoid the good old Ramanujan and online available expressions, for instance: the coolest ways of expressing $\pi$ on Quora. The winner of the last month challenge is this integral
$${\large\int_0^\infty}\frac{(1+x)\log(1+x)(2+\log x)\log\left(\!\frac{1+x}{2}\!\right)-2x\log(1+x)\log x}{x^{3/2}(1+x)\log^2x}\ dx={\Large\pi}$$
The equality is precise to at least thousand decimal places. Unfortunately, my friend who proposes this integral keeping the mystery to himself. I tried to crack this integral while waiting for a solution to be offered by one of my friends, but failed to get any.
I have tried to break this integral into two part:
$${\large\int_0^\infty}\frac{\log(1+x)(2+\log x)\log\left(\!\frac{1+x}{2}\!\right)}{x^{3/2}\log^2x}\ dx-2{\large\int_0^\infty}\frac{\log(1+x)}{\sqrt{x}(1+x)\log x}\ dx$$
but each integrals diverges. I have tried many substitutions like $x=y-1$, $x=\frac{1}{y}$, or $x=\tan^2y$ hoping for familiar functions, but couldn't get one. I also tried the method of differentiation under integral sign by introducing
$$I(s)={\large\int_0^\infty}x^{s}\cdot\frac{(1+x)\log(1+x)(2+\log x)\log\left(\!\frac{1+x}{2}\!\right)-2x\log(1+x)\log x}{(1+x)\log^2x}\ dx$$
and differentiating twice with respect to $s$ to get rid of $\log^2x$ couldn't work either. I have a strong feeling that I miss something completely obvious in my calculation. I'm not having much success in evaluating this integral since two weeks ago, so I thought it's about time to ask you for help. Can you help me out to prove it, please?