Sorry to revive a post from 2016. Ihf's accepted answer is lovely! I'd like to provide another approach to the problem, which is more elementary in my opinion.
We proceed to prove the claim by induction on the degree $n$. The base case $n=1$ has been handled already in the original post, so I will focus on the inductive step.
Suppose the claim is true for all polynomials of degree $\leq n-1$. Consider a degree $n$ polynomial $f(x)$ and let $d=\gcd(f(0), f(1), ..., f(n))$. We want to prove that $d\mid f(k)$ for each integer $k$. Let $g(x)=f(x+1)-f(x)$. Then $g(x)$ is a polynomial and it has degree $n'\leq n-1$. Let $e = \gcd(g(0), g(1), ..., g(n'))$. By the inductive hypothesis, $e$ divides $g(k)$ for each integer $k$.
Now, observe that $d$ divides $f(j)$ for $0\leq j\leq n$, which in particular implies that $d$ divides $g(j)=f(j+1)-f(j)$ for $0\leq j\leq n'$. Since $e$ is the greatest common divisor of $g(0), g(1), ..., g(n')$, it follows that $d$ divides $e$. Since $d$ divides $e$, and $e$ divides $g(k)$, we conclude that $d$ also divides $g(k)=f(k+1)-f(k)$ for each integer $k$.
Now, since $d$ divides $f(n)$, and $d$ divides $g(n)=f(n+1)-f(n)$, it follows that $d$ divides $f(n+1)$. Similarly, since $d$ divides $f(n+1)$ and $g(n+1)=f(n+2)-f(n+1)$, it follows that $d$ divides $f(n+2)$, and we continue in this fashion indefinitely. Thus, $d$ divides $f(m)$ for each positive integer $m$. Similarly, since $d$ divides $f(0)$ and $g(-1) = f(0)-f(-1)$, we get that $d$ divides $f(-1)$. Continuing in this way, since $d$ divides $g(-2)=f(-1)-f(-2)$, we get that $d$ also divides $f(-2)$, and etc. Thus, $d$ divides $f(k)$ for each integer $k$, and the proof is complete.