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In our booklet it is written that :

A function is continuous at every isolated point.

MY doubt:-

Let us consider an example: let $f:\mathbb N \rightarrow \mathbb{R} $ such that $f(x)=x$. As $\ \mathbb N =\{1,2,3,...\}$ and $1,2,3,..$ are all isolated points i.e $1,2,3... $ are not limit points of $\mathbb N $.

Now according to the above statement the function is continuous at every isolated point. But according to the definition of continuity, the continuity at point $a$ is $$\lim_{x\to a}f(x)=f(a)$$

Now take any number from set $\mathbb N $ , for example take $ 2$ then $f(2)=2$ and $$\lim_{x\to 2}f(x)=\text{not possible to determine or cannot be evaluate }$$

More precisely $2$ is not a limit point, so limit at $2$ cannot be calculated. So, the function is not continuous at all isolated points in this example.

How the function can be continuous at all isolated points? Can anyone tell me?

Masacroso
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  • Whats is a sequence $(x_n)\in \Bbb{N}$ such that $x_n \to 2$, for example? Think about that. – Irddo Jun 06 '16 at 04:56

4 Answers4

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This is because the main difference between the definition of limit in a point and continuity in a point is the inclusion (in the last case) of the distance zero in the domain, i.e. $|x-c|<\delta$ for continuity and $0<|x-c|<\delta$ for limit.

The definition of the limit of a function at a point (to exist a limit the point must be a limit point):

$$\forall\varepsilon>0,\exists\delta>0,\forall x\in\mathcal D:0<|x-c|<\delta\implies|f(x)-L|<\varepsilon$$

where $\mathcal D$ is the domain of the function. Notice that $c$ doesn't need to belong to the domain of $f$. Now the definition of continuity of a function at a point is:

$$\forall\varepsilon>0,\exists\delta>0,\forall x\in\mathcal D:|x-c|<\delta\implies|f(x)-f(c)|<\varepsilon$$

Notice that here we need that $c\in\mathcal D$ and for $x=c$ the definition is trivially true, that is what happen in an isolated point.


Trying to answer the comment. We can define the limit of a function in some point using sequences, this is named the sequential characterization of the functional limit: if for any sequence $(x_n)_n$ in the domain of the function that converges to some point $c$ (maybe in the domain or not) the sequence $(f(x_n))_n$ converge to some point $L$ in the codomain (maybe not in the range of the function) then we says that $L$ is the limit of the function $f$ at $c$.

Symbolically if

$$\big(\forall (x_n)_n\in\mathcal D^{\mathbb N },\forall j\in\Bbb N: (x_n)_n\to c\land x_j\neq c\implies (f(x_n))_n\to L\big) \iff\lim_{x\to c}f(x)=L$$

Notice that if $(x_n)_n\to c$ and there is some finite number of $x_j=c$ then we can quit these points of the sequence and produce a subsequence $(x'_n)_n\to c$ such that $x'_n\neq c$ for all $n\in \mathbb N$, then this subsequence hold the condition $|x'_n-c|>0$ that is required in the $\delta,\varepsilon$-definition of the functional limit.

Masacroso
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  • u gave the nice explanation on the inclusion and exclusion of zero. i agree with your solution. but still i have one question that is: can we say that the limit of a function at 2 is equal to 2 – Girish Kumar Chandora Jun 07 '16 at 04:46
  • @girishkumarchandora it depends: if the function at $x=2$ have a limit of $2$ then yes... but this is a rare coincidence. The limit of any function in a point of it domain is a point in the codomain. Maybe you are confused due to the implicit fact that in the real line any point can be approached from anywhere, i.e. we approach to $x=2$ with points that are not $2$ and we see what happen then to the values of $f(x)$: we can see if converging to some $x$ then the images are converging to some point in the codomain. – Masacroso Jun 07 '16 at 06:50
  • i didn't get it what u want to say.... i just want to know that it is true or wrong: limit at 2 is 2 – Girish Kumar Chandora Jun 07 '16 at 07:51
  • For the function $f:\Bbb R\to\Bbb R$ such that $f(x)=x$ then we have that $\lim_{x\to c}f(x)=f(c)=c$, so yes $\lim_{x\to 2}x=2$. – Masacroso Jun 07 '16 at 07:54
  • iam considering the above function $f:N\rightarrow R$ – Girish Kumar Chandora Jun 07 '16 at 08:02
  • it is true or wrong for above function that limit at 2 is 2 – Girish Kumar Chandora Jun 07 '16 at 08:06
  • it is true or wrong for above function that limit at 2 is 2 – Girish Kumar Chandora Jun 07 '16 at 08:06
  • Oh, sorry @girishkumarchandora, I was not paying attention. Yes, it is true that the function $f:\Bbb N\to \Bbb R$ s.t. $f(n)=n$ is continuous. There is no limit in any point because $\Bbb N$ is composed of isolated points... but as I said you dont need any limit for the definition of continuity in isolated points. The isolated points are trivially continuous. For every $\varepsilon>0$ you can have any $0<\delta<1$ and then the defintion of continuity hold for any point. – Masacroso Jun 07 '16 at 08:07
  • dear i understand your solution and explanation clearly. but if someone said function is continuous at 2 so limit is also 2 (as according to the definition a function is continuous at point a then limit exists at point a) .... u only say me it is true or wrong if we say limit is 2{ particularly talking about this case} – Girish Kumar Chandora Jun 07 '16 at 08:17
  • i got it so it would be wrong if we say limit is 2 – Girish Kumar Chandora Jun 07 '16 at 08:23
  • Yes, exactly @girishkumarchandora because in $\Bbb N$ doesnt exist convergent sequence to some point. In a set exist two kind of points (on some classification): isolated points and limit points, one is the opposite to the other. I cant explain here, too long. – Masacroso Jun 07 '16 at 08:25
  • Sir i didn't get the last part what do you mean when you said $|x'_n-l|>0$ ? Also for such ${x'_n} \rightarrow c$ as $c$ is isolated then in nbd of c, ${f(x'_n) }$ doesnt make sense so how do you so it goes to $f(c) $ ? – M Desmond Sep 25 '21 at 13:44
  • Sir what is $\mathcal{D}^{\mathbb{N}}$ ? – Subham Karmakar Sep 29 '21 at 13:00
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By definition, a function $f$ is continuous at a point $p$ if, as you get near $p$, $f($points near p$)$ approaches $f(p)$.

For isolated points, there are no points near $p$, so the statement is trivially true!

It's like saying: if there were unicorns, I would be green. The statement is always true if there are no unicorns, as the precondition is never satisfied.

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Well, your mistake is really conceptual. It all comes back to the following:

$$p\implies q$$

is true, if $p$ is false.

So, if there are no sequence $x_n\in N$ converging to $2$, then, $$x_n\to 2\implies f(x_n)\to 2$$ is still correct.

Also, you're missing a fact. Although $2$ is not a limit point, there are sequences that converge to $2$. For example, $2,2,2,2,2,\ldots$ converges to $2$. More precisely, any sequence that constantly becomes $2$ after some point converges to $2$, and these are the only sequences in that are converging to $2$ in $N$.

Emre
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  • explain briefly , i didn't get it – Girish Kumar Chandora Jun 06 '16 at 05:02
  • $f$ is continuous at $a$ if for any sequence $x_n$ in $N$; $$x_n\to a\implies f(x_n)\to f(a)$$ holds. Now a statement $p\implies q$ holds iff whenever $p$ is true, $q$ is also true. So, if $p$ is false, $p\implies q$ is still holds. Thus, if there are no sequences converging to $2$, the first part of the $\implies$ is false. Thus, the statement still holds and $f$ is continuous. – Emre Jun 06 '16 at 05:11
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One can interpret $$\lim_{x\to a}f(x)=f(a)$$

to be true vacuously, since $f$ is not defined in a sufficiently small deleted neighbourhood of $a$. Alternatively, you could consider the standard $\epsilon-\delta$ definition of continuity and note that it is satisfied.

  • please explain briefly , i didn't get it – Girish Kumar Chandora Jun 06 '16 at 05:01
  • http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/70736/in-classical-logic-why-is-p-rightarrow-q-true-if-p-is-false-and-q-is-tr if you don't understand what the vacuous truth is. – rb612 Jun 06 '16 at 05:05
  • But isn't $\lim{x\rightarrow a}f(x)$ usually defined only where $a$ is a limit point? And so if $a$ is an isolated point, then this expression is undefined. –  Oct 30 '18 at 01:32