I have to find $$I=\int_{0}^{\pi}\ln(1-2a \cos x+a^2)\,dx$$ Can someone help me to solve it?
2 Answers
I thought that it might be interesting to present a way forward that exploits Gauss' Mean Value Theorem.
To proceed, we write the integral of interest as
$$\begin{align} \int_0^\pi \log(1-2a\cos(x)+a^2)\,dx&=\frac12 \int_{-\pi}^\pi \log(1-2a\cos(x)+a^2)\,dx\\\\ &= \int_{-\pi}^\pi \log|1-ae^{i\theta}|\,d\theta \tag 1\\\\ &= \int_{0}^{2\pi} \log|1+ae^{i\theta}|\,d\theta \tag 2\\\\ &= \int_{0}^{2\pi} \log|1-ae^{i\theta}|\,d\theta \tag 3 \end{align}$$
where in going from $(1)$ to $(2)$ we enforced the substitution $\theta\to \theta -\pi$ and in arriving at $(3)$ we exploited the $2\pi$-periodicity of the integrand. Therefore, we may assume without loss of generality that $a>0$
Now, for $0<a<1$, Gauss' Mean Value Theorem guarantees that
$$\begin{align} \int_{0}^{2\pi} \log(1+ae^{i\theta})\,d\theta&=\log(1) \tag 4\\\\ &=0 \end{align}$$
since $\log(1+z)$ is analytic in and on the disk of radius $a<1$ with center at the origin.
We can write the integrand on the left-hand side of $(4)$ as
$$\log(1+ae^{i\theta})=\log|1+ae^{i\theta}|+i\arg(1+ae^{i\theta}) \tag 5$$
Therefore, integrating $(5)$ reveals
$$\int_{0}^{2\pi} \log(1+ae^{i\theta})\,d\theta=\int_{0}^{2\pi} \log|1+ae^{i\theta}|\,d\theta+i\int_{0}^{2\pi} \arg(1+ae^{i\theta})\,d\theta $$
whence we conclude from $(2)$ that
$$\begin{align} \int_0^\pi \log(1-2a\cos(x)+a^2)\,dx&=\int_{0}^{2\pi} \log|1+ae^{i\theta}|\,d\theta\\\\ &=\text{Re}\left(\int_0^{2\pi}\log(1+ae^{i\theta})\,d\theta\right)\\\\ &=0 \end{align}$$
as was to be shown!
For $a>1$, we simply write
$$\int_0^{2\pi} \log(1+ae^{i\theta})\,d\theta=2\pi \log(a)+\int_0^{2\pi}\log\left(\frac1a +e^{i\theta}\right)\,d\theta \tag 6$$
Applying Gauss' Mean Value Theorem to the integral on the right-hand side of $(6)$, we obtain for $a>1$
$$\int_0^\pi \log(1-2a\cos(x)+a^2)\,dx=2\pi \log(a)$$

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We have: $$ 1-2a\cos x+a^2 = (1-a e^{ix})(1-a e^{-ix})\tag{1}$$ and for every $a$ such that $|a|<1$ we have: $$ \log\left(1-a e^{ix}\right) = -\sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{a^n e^{inx}}{n}\tag{2} $$ so that:
$$ \int_{0}^{\pi} \log(1-2a\cos x+a^2)\,dx = -\sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{a^n}{n}\int_{0}^{\pi}2\cos(nx)\,dx =\color{red}{\large 0}.\tag{3}$$
Thanks to @ddsLeonardo, this page deals with the complementary case $|\alpha|>1$ through differentiation under the integral sign (aka Feynman's trick).

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@Tuanlee: they are the same thing, at least to me: $$\log = \log_e = \ln$$ – Jack D'Aurizio May 26 '16 at 02:11
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And anyway, it does not make any difference. The answer is zero for any logarithm. – Jack D'Aurizio May 26 '16 at 02:12
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According to the link I posted as a comment to the question, the answer is not always zero. – ddsLeonardo May 26 '16 at 02:23
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1@ddsLeonardo: I wrote $|\alpha|<1$ and your link is dealing with the complementary case. – Jack D'Aurizio May 26 '16 at 02:24
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