Let $G \subseteq \mathbb{C}$ be a region in $\mathbb{C}$, i.e. $G$ is open, nonempty and connected, and let $f_n: G \to \mathbb{C}$ be a sequence of complex-valued functions, with $n \in \mathbb{N}$. We call $(f_n)$ continuously convergent iff $(f_n(x_n))_{n \in \mathbb{N}} \subseteq \mathbb{C}$ is a convergent sequence, for all convergent $(x_n) \subseteq G$. I now want to show:
$(f_n)$ converges compactly (i.e. converges uniformly on each compact $K \subseteq G$) to a continuous function $f: G \to \mathbb{C}$ iff $(f_n)$ converges continuously.
For "=>", I thought about the following: if $(f_n)$ converges uniformly on each compact subset against a continuous $f$, then we have that $\lim_{n \to \infty} f_n(x) = f(x)$; and since $f$ is continuous, we also have $\lim_{n \to \infty} f(x_n) = f(x)$ for every sequence with $x_n \to x$ (in $\mathbb{C}$). Can I already combine that to $f(x) = \lim_{n \to \infty} \left( \lim_{m \to \infty} f_n(x_m) \right) = \lim_{n \to \infty} f_n(x_n)$ to get continuous convergence?
I'm not really sure how to approach "<=", though. If $f(x) = \lim_{n \to \infty} f_n(x_n)$, then I would need to show that $f$ converges uniformly on each compact subset, i.e. that $\lim_{n \to \infty} \sup_{x \in K} (f_n(x) - f(x)) = 0$, which is already a way harder claim than pointwise convergence, and I don't know how I can get there with the definition of $f$ being continuously convergent. (It's obvious to me that $f_n$ is pointwise convergent, since we get the very definition of pointwise convergence if we simply set $x_n = x$.)
(I'm also told that this result holds for general metric spaces, not just in $\mathbb{C}$, but for me, it's sufficient to prove it in $\mathbb{C}$ for now. I'm assuming that the solutions for both directions aren't to hard to generalize when having solved them for the complex case.)