Question 1) is very classical.
Question 2: Let ($\lambda, V$) be an eigenpair of $A$, i.e., be such that $$AV=\lambda V \ \ \ (1)$$.
As $A^T=-A$, $A^TA=-A^2$. Thus, using (1) twice
$$(A^TA)V=-AAV=-A(\lambda V)=-\lambda AV=-\lambda^2 V$$.
Therefore $-\lambda^2$ is an eigenvalue of $A^TA$.
But, for any $A$, $A^TA$ is a symmetric matrix ($(A^TA)^T=A^TA^{TT}=A^TA$).
that is in fact with positive semi definite I. E. with $ \geq 0$ eigenvalues.
Thus, according to question 1), $A^TA$ has real eigenvalues. Thus, $-\lambda^2 \geq 0 \iff \lambda^2 \leq 0$. Therefore $\lambda=ib$ where $b$ is a real number.
Another method of proof relies on quadratic (hermitian) forms : see here.