This is what I tried. I'm not sure though.
$$A:=\lim_{p\to0}\left(\int_0^1\left(f(x)^p\right)dx\right)^{1/p}$$
$$\ln A = \lim_{p\to0} \dfrac{\ln \left(\int_0^1f(x)^pdx\right)}{p}$$
$$\ln A = \lim_{p\to0} \dfrac{\int_0^1f(x)^p \ln (f(x))dx}{\int_0^1f(x)^pdx}=\frac{\int _0^1\ln f(x) dx}{1}$$
$$A = e^{\int _0^1\ln f(x) dx}$$
I'm seeing that if this were a (riemann) summation instead of an integration, we would have (since exponential of a sum is a product)
\begin{align*}
A &= e^{\sum_{r=0}^n \ln f(\frac{r}{n}) \frac1{n}}\\
&= \prod_{r=0}^n e^{\ln f(\frac{r}{n}) \frac1{n}}\\
&= \left( \prod_{r=0}^n f\left(\frac{r}{n}\right)\right)^{\frac{1}{n}}\\
\end{align*}
This seems to be some sort of a geometric mean. Am I correct? Does this have some implications?