0

What is $i^{1/i}$?

Step by step walk through would be appreciated.

Tried searching, but didn't find much about this.

m0nhawk
  • 1,779
  • 1
    Kinda cool is that $i=e^{\frac{i \pi}{2}}$ which can be proven by Taylor series. Then, the result follow almost immediately. You notice that $1/i = -i$. Then you are trying to find $i^{-i}$ which is just $\frac{1}{i^i}=\frac{1}{e^{\frac{-\pi}{2}}}$ which is in fact the real answer. – KR136 May 11 '16 at 18:52

4 Answers4

4

There are infinitely many possible values of $i^{1/i}$. They are all real numbers of the form

$$z_k= e^{\pi(4k+1)/2}$$

This is because of the multiple-valuedness of the complex logarithm; the computation explicitly is, for any integer $k$,

$$i^{1/i}=i^{-i} =e^{-i\log i} = e^{-i(\pi i/2+2\pi ik)}=e^{\pi(4k+1)/2}$$

The principal value (taking $k=0$) is $e^{\pi/2}\approx 4.81048$.

MPW
  • 43,638
  • I'll comment that it seems pretty cool to notice that you can say "the $i^{th}$ root of $i$ is $\sqrt{e^{\pi}}$", even if it is imprecise. – MPW May 13 '16 at 03:46
4

As has already been explained, $\dfrac{1}{i} = -i$. So we will evaluate $i^{-i}$.

Let $z = i^{1/i} = i^{-i}$. We'll take the complex logarithm, denoted $\operatorname{Log}$, of both sides. So we have $\operatorname{Log} z = \operatorname{Log} i^{-i} = -i \operatorname{Log } i$. So what is $\operatorname{Log} i$?

The complex logarithm of the complex number $z = a + bi$ is defined to be $\operatorname{Log} z = \ln |z| + i\theta$, where $|z| = \sqrt{a^2 + b^2}$ is the modulus and $\theta$ (also called the "argument" of $z$) is the angle that the point $(a,b)$ makes with the positive $x$-axis. For example, $\theta$ for $-3+3i$ is $3\pi/4$ radians because the point $(-3,3)$ makes an angle of $3\pi/4$ radians with the positive $x$-axis. Note that there are infinitely many values of $\theta$ that could work (just keep adding/subtracting $2\pi$ as often as you'd like) but by convention we take the "branch cut" $-\pi < \theta < \pi$. We can take other branch cuts, but that's beyond the scope of this discussion. Anyway, this $\theta$ is the same $\theta$ you have when you convert a complex number in rectangular form to polar form.

Since $i = 0 + 1i$, then the corresponding point is $(0,1)$. The $\theta$ for this is $\pi/2$ radians. Note also that $|i| = \sqrt{0^2 + 1^2} = 1$. So then $$ \operatorname{Log} i = \ln|i| + i\theta = \ln 1 + i\pi/2 = \frac{i\pi}{2}, $$ because $\ln 1 = 0$.

Putting this together, we have $$ \operatorname{Log} z = -i \operatorname{Log} i = -i \cdot \frac{i\pi}{2} = \frac{\pi}{2}. $$

Finally, $\operatorname{Log} z = \pi/2$ means $z = e^{\pi/2}$. Therefore: $$i^{1/i} = e^{\pi/2}$$

1

Here's the naive answer (which I admit, was my original answer!)

$$i^{1/i} = i^{-i} = (e^{i\pi/2})^{-i} = e^{-i\cdot i\pi/2} = e^{\pi/2} \approx 4.81$$

The second equality utilizes Euler's identity, $e^{i\theta} = \cos\theta +i\sin\theta$, evaluated at $\theta=\pi/2$.

But we needn't have chosen $\theta=\pi/2.$ Any angle of the form $\theta=\pi/2 + 2\pi n$ with $n\in\mathcal{Z}$ would work. Then, in actuality, the result is multivalued:

$$i^{1/i} = i^{-i} = (e^{i\pi/2 + i2\pi n})^{-i} = e^{-i\cdot i(\pi/2+2\pi n)} = e^{\pi/2+2\pi n}$$

If we had restrictions on $\theta$, then we could confine the answer to be single valued. Note that $n=0$ gives the naive answer in the first line.

zahbaz
  • 10,441
  • 1
    Probably important to note that there are other possible answers depending on the multi-valued nature here. – jdods May 11 '16 at 18:56
  • @jdods. Thank you. Will edit. – zahbaz May 11 '16 at 19:00
  • I just wanted to say that I didn't down vote your answer. In fact I'm going to upvote it now. I think your answer was good initially, and is obviously fine with the edits. – jdods May 11 '16 at 19:08
  • 1
    @jdods Your comment and the downvote were both constructive. I took no offense, but rather, improved my answer. Thanks. – zahbaz May 12 '16 at 03:21
-1

Basically, this is a combination of two more well-known problems, 1/i=i and i^i equals about .2.

i^(1/i) is actually i^-i because 1/i is equal to -i. https://www.math.hmc.edu/funfacts/ffiles/20013.3.shtml shows how i^i is in fact equal to a real number. i^(1/i)=i^-i=(i^i)^-1 is equal to the inverse of that real number, which in turn is equal to another real number, about 4.8. If you are looking for a proof of the 1/i=-i thing, go here: https://forums.penny-arcade.com/discussion/140370/1-i-i

thecat
  • 1,838
  • You can also just evaluate $1/i$ the same way you'd evaluate any quotient with an imaginary number in the denominator - multiply the top and bottom by the conjugate of the bottom. So then you have $\frac{1}{i} = \frac{1}{i} \cdot \frac{-i}{-i} = \frac{-i}{-i^2} = -i$. While multiplying the top and bottom just by $i$ will work in this case, it's not generalizable. –  May 11 '16 at 18:50
  • $1/i=-i$, not $i$. – Scounged May 11 '16 at 18:56
  • Note that $(a^b)^c$ and $a^{(bc)}$ need not have the same principal values, so you have to be careful about just multiplying exponents in that fashion. It is true that at least some pair of such values matches, but each of these expressions generally has infinitely many possible values and only one of each such value is the principal value. – MPW May 11 '16 at 19:08