Let $f$ be holomorphic in an open $\Omega \subset \mathbb{C}$ and $\gamma$ a closed curve in $\text{int}(\Omega)$, along which $f$ is never zero.
Are these hypotheses enough to claim $\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_{\gamma}\frac{f'(z)}{f(z)}dz$ is an integer? If not, what are the necessary and sufficient conditions for that?
I can prove that's an integer for some particular cases, for example when $\Omega$ is convex and $\gamma$ is a circle. But I've seen people claming this in many other contexts, like when $\Omega$ is an annulus around $0$ and $\gamma $ is an arbitrary curve inside it. This isn't obvious to me at all.
Thanks!