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Does $\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{n^2-4}{(n-1)^2(n+3)^2} $ converge?

I used the integral test and found that it does, but it was a bit cumbersome. Is there an easier way?

Thanks

3 Answers3

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You can look for a bound. For example $$0\le\frac{n^2-4}{(n-1)^2(n+3)^2}<\frac{n^2}{(n-1)^2n^2}=\frac{1}{(n-1)^2}$$ And it is simple to demonstrate that $$S=\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(n-1)^2}$$ converges, and the sum will be bounded between $$0\le\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{n^2-4}{(n-1)^2(n+3)^2}\le S$$

user3209698
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The easiest is to use equivalence, since it is a series with positive terms: $$\frac{n^2-4}{(n-1)^2(n+3)^2}\sim_\infty\frac{n^2}{n^2\cdot n^2}=\frac1{n^2}, $$ which converge.

Bernard
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By partial fraction decomposition, $$\begin{eqnarray*}\sum_{n\geq 3}\frac{n^2-2n-3}{(n-2)^2 (n+2)^2}&=&\frac{1}{32}\sum_{n\geq 3}\left(\color{blue}{\frac{7}{x-2}-\frac{7}{x+2}}+\color{red}{\frac{10}{(x+2)^2}-\frac{6}{(x-2)^2}}\right)\\&=&\frac{1}{32}\left[\color{blue}{\frac{175}{12}}\color{red}{-6\,\zeta(2)+10\left(\zeta(2)-\frac{1}{1^2}-\frac{1}{2^2}-\frac{1}{3^2}-\frac{1}{4^2}\right)}\right]\\&=&\frac{1}{32}\left[\frac{25}{72}+4\,\zeta(2)\right]=\color{purple}{\frac{25}{2304}+\frac{\pi^2}{48}}.\end{eqnarray*}$$ The blue sum is a telescopic sum, the red sum is a well-known sum.

Jack D'Aurizio
  • 353,855