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I've seen this Kuratowski definition for ordered pairs, but can't fathom why it implies an order to $x$ and $y$

$(x,y):=\{\{x\}, \{x,y\}\}$

As I understand sets, $\{\{x\}, \{x,y\}\}$ is also $\{\{x,y\}, \{x\}\}$. Only when I think about the Axiom of Union does $\{\{x\}, \{x,y\}\}$ "collapse down" to $S = \{x, y\}$, but that doesn't give me much either. All I can see is some as yet hidden message in the set saying "I am the set $\{x,y\}$ and my order of $x$ first is indicated by having $\{x\}$ along for the ride."

147pm
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    think about ordering by set inclusion – Forever Mozart May 02 '16 at 02:27
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    The defining property of ordered pairs is the following: For all $a,b,c,d$, $(a,b)=(c,d)$ if and only if $a=c$ and $b=d$. Kuratowski's definition has this property, so it is suitable for all our needs involving ordered pairs. The word "order" is used in a non-formal way here, simply because, intuitively, "$a$ comes before $b$ in $(a,b)$". – Luiz Cordeiro May 02 '16 at 02:43
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    What's important to understand is that the Kuratowski definition is merely one of many possible encodings of ordered pairs into the language of set theory. All we need from an encoding is to be able to decode it, that is, to recover $x$ and $y$ unambiguously from it. Can you see how to do that from the set ${{x},{x,y}}$? Can you see why you couldn't do that from just the set ${x,y}$? –  May 02 '16 at 02:49
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    The idea is to code the order by listing its initial segments. Following the same idea, if we wanted to code a triple $\langle x,y,z\rangle$, we could think of it as an order with $x<y<z$, and so its initial segments would be ${x},{x,y},{x,y,z}$, and we could define $\langle x,y,z\rangle={{x},{x,y},{x,y,z}}$. – Andrés E. Caicedo May 02 '16 at 03:57
  • In the sense that this definition can be considered an encoding of an ordered pair, it really does contain a "hidden message" just as the last sentence of the question says. And you have to refer back to this particular definition, using it as a kind of "code book" in order to be able to "decode" ${{x}, {x,y}}$ into the intended meaning of the ordered pair $(x,y)$. – David K May 02 '16 at 04:03
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    http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/62908/how-can-an-ordered-pair-be-expressed-as-a-set/62937#62937 – Asaf Karagila May 02 '16 at 05:59
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    @AndrésCaicedo: Your ordered triple encoding doesn't work -- it represents both $\langle 0, 0, 1\rangle$ and $\langle 0,1,1\rangle$ as ${{0},{0,1}}$. – hmakholm left over Monica May 02 '16 at 13:08
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    @HenningMakholm Yes, I am aware of that. You will see that I wrote $x<y<z$. This is a cute detail about pairs $(x,y)$, that they work even if $x=y$, which is why we actually code triples by iterated pairs: $(x,y,z)=(x,(y,z))$, rather than directly through the initial segments of the natural associated order. Anyway, this is not "my" ordered triple. The coding of orders by initial segments is a standard trick and was Kuratowski's original motivation. – Andrés E. Caicedo May 02 '16 at 14:02
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    because ${{a},{a,b}}={{c},{c,d}}$ if and only if $a=c$ and $b=d$. – Angina Seng Sep 12 '19 at 02:53
  • @LordSharktheUnknown so ? I still do not get the ordered pair to set representation :-(. Is $(b,a)$ representation of set really different from $(a,b)$ – New Student Sep 12 '19 at 02:57
  • $(a,b)={{a},{a,b}}={{a,b},{a}}={{b,a},{a}}$ nothing wrong with that. But none of these equals ${{b},{a,b}}$ – Mirko Sep 12 '19 at 02:57
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    $(b,a) = {{b},{b,a}}$; this is equal to ${{a},{a,b}}=(a,b)$ if and only if $a=b$. – Arturo Magidin Sep 12 '19 at 02:58
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    @NewStudent $(1,2)={{1},{1,2}}$ has ${1}$ as an element; $(2,1)={{2},{1,2}}$ hasn't. – Angina Seng Sep 12 '19 at 03:00
  • @ArturoMagidin this makes sense. However, how in the set representation of $(a,b)$ or $(b,a)$ is the order seen ? Is it because of the set with the single element and a rule among us humans which says this reflects an ordered pair ?

    With this logic would the ordered pair $(a,)$ be equal to $\left {\left {a\right },\left {a,\right } \right }$ in which case the set will be the same as $\left {\left {a\right } \right }$ , correct ?

    – New Student Sep 12 '19 at 03:02
  • Is not a rule among the humans. This definition of ordered pair it is not for, in some way, seeing the order in a pair, it is rather with the purpose of fulfilling that : $(a,b)=(c,d) \ \Leftrightarrow \ a=c , \wedge , b=d$. Thus, $(a,b)$ and $(b,a)$ are unequal unless $a=b$. – azif00 Sep 12 '19 at 03:06
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    @NewStudent: It is seen because if $a\neq b$, then $\cap(a,b) = {a}\cap{a,b} = {a}$, but $\cap(b,a) = {b}\cap{b,a} = {b}$. They are different sets when $a\neq b$. – Arturo Magidin Sep 12 '19 at 03:06
  • Azif00 and @ArturoMagidin thanks. So you are saying it is to do with distinctiveness of an ordered pair from other ordered pairs, right ?

    Any math papers where this was clarified ? I am pushing it but would love to read and simple google search wont show anything.

    – New Student Sep 12 '19 at 03:09
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    @newstudent: the “first coordinate” of $(a,b)$ is equal to $\cap(a,b)$, the intersection of all elements of $(a,b)$. The second coordinate is either $(\cup (a,b))-(\cap (a,b))$, if this is nonempty, or the same as the first coordinate if this is empty. – Arturo Magidin Sep 12 '19 at 03:09
  • Look up Paul Halmos’s “Naive Set Theory.” And there are these ancient institutions called “libraries” where you may find copies of it, if google happens to not include the venerable book. – Arturo Magidin Sep 12 '19 at 03:10
  • @ArturoMagidin I have that book. I cannot find this ordered pair right now but will look later. Thanks. – New Student Sep 12 '19 at 03:10
  • @ArturoMagidin just going by your earlier comment and being super pedantic what is $\cap (a,b)$ doesn't the $\cap$ operation require 2 operands. Or are the 2 operands $\left { a \right } and \left { a,b \right }$ ? – New Student Sep 12 '19 at 03:16
  • @NewStudent: I give the definition in my answer below. I also gave the definition in the comment: “the intersection of all elements of $(a,b)$”. Did you read it? – Arturo Magidin Sep 12 '19 at 03:22
  • @ArturoMagidin reading and trying to assimilate... – New Student Sep 12 '19 at 03:30

7 Answers7

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You said:

I can't fathom why it implies an order to $x$ and $y$

It doesn't really. The $x$ and $y$ in the ordered pair $(x, y)$ don't really have an order. Who's to say that the $x$ is first and the $y$ is second? If you read right-to-left, you'd say that the $y$ was first and the $x$ was second.

The important thing isn't which is first. The important thing is that the set we pick to represent $(x,y)$ must be different from the set that represents $(y, x)$, because these are different pairs.

As you pointed out $\{x, y\}$ is the same set as $\{y, x\}$. But let's consider the Kuratowski pairs $(x,y)$ and $(y,x)$:

$$\begin{eqnarray} (x,y) = \{\{x\},\{x,y\}\} \\ (y,x) = \{\{y\},\{x,y\}\} \end{eqnarray} $$

Hey look, they’re different sets. That's what we needed.

Kuratowski's definition was preceded by a number of others. The one by Felix Hausdorff may make you feel more comfortable:

$$\begin{eqnarray} (x,y) = \{\{x, 1\}, \{y,2\}\} \\ (y,x) = \{\{y, 1\}, \{x,2\}\} \end{eqnarray} $$

Now the order you wanted is explicit.

But it is important to realize that the $1$ and $2$ here are completely arbitrary markers! It would have worked just as well for Hausdorff to have used some different markers to indicate which component was first:

$$\begin{eqnarray} (x,y) = \{\{x, \text{potato}\},\{y,\text{banana}\}\}\\ (y,x) = \{\{y, \text{potato}\},\{x,\text{banana}\}\}\\ \end{eqnarray} $$

Now you can recognize the first component of the pair because it is associated with $\text{potato}$.

The point is that the details of the particular representation aren't important. We only care that the representation does what we need it to. For ordered pairs, we need to be able to form the pair $(x, y)$ for any $x$ and $y$; we need to be able to extract the components again, and crucially, we need $(x,y) $ to be equal to $(a, b)$ if and only if $x=a$ and $y=b$. Both Kuratowski's and Hausdorff's definitions do this, and so do many others.

Which definition we pick is not really important. What is important is that the objects we choose to represent ordered pairs must behave like ordered pairs. If we get that much, we are mathematically satisfied. The Kuratowski definition is used not because it captures some basic essence of "ordered pair"-ness, but because it does what we need it to do, which is just enough.

MJD
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    Great answer. I would just add that one reason Kuratowski's definition is used more IMO is that it is aesthetically pleasing and contains no extraneous notions unlike Hausdorff's. – DRF May 02 '16 at 05:56
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    @DRF: And it's much easier to prove! – user21820 May 02 '16 at 10:16
  • "That's all we needed" -- not quite we need that $(a,b)\ne(x,y)$ whenever $a\ne x$ or $b\ne y$, not merely in the special case that $a=y$ and $b=x$. – hmakholm left over Monica May 02 '16 at 13:13
  • Yes. I elaborated on this and gave the complete and correct statement in the next-to-last paragraph. – MJD May 02 '16 at 13:34
  • Hausdorff's representation is more economical. It does not store x twice or have O(n^2) redundancy for n-tuples like Kuratowski's method. Kuratowkski representation looks shorter when written with symbols $x$ and $y$ but the opposite is true if the rules are implemented as computer code. @DRF – zyx May 02 '16 at 15:57
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    @zyx Certainly, but then again that definition is definitely not aimed at computer programmers, and anywhere it's likely to be used the size of the pair (even when we assume transitive closure) will be the same as the bigger of the elements (or finite). – DRF May 02 '16 at 16:42
  • The size seems to be |x|+|y|+O(1) for Hausdorff representation and 2|x|+|y|+O(1) for Kuratowski where |t| is the storage space for a term t. @DRF – zyx May 02 '16 at 19:02
  • So, if I have two sets - A={2,5,3}, B= {4,2,6} - and I want to create a Kuratowski ordered pair (x,y), the resulting set could be either {2,4,5,2,3,6} or {4,2,2,5,6,3}? – moonman239 Dec 01 '16 at 15:12
  • @moonman239 What are $x$ and $y$? – MJD Dec 01 '16 at 19:50
  • It might be useful to point out that category theory has an abstract notion of a “product object”, and for the category of sets, one can show that if $A$ and $B$ are sets, then the set ${ {{a}, {a, b}}\mid a\in A\text{ and }b\in B}$ possesses the properties required of a product object. But the set ${ {{b}, {a, b}}\mid a\in A\text{ and }b\in B}$ also possesses those properties, and so do many other sets. But one can show that all such sets are “isomorphic”—they are essentially the same, in a way that can be made rigorous—and so also is any product object. – MJD Feb 20 '18 at 03:51
  • Several comments above compare the technical advantages of Kuratowski's and Hausdorff's formulations of the ordered pair. Both of these were historically preceded by Norbert Wiener's, which is $\langle a, b\rangle = {{{a}, \emptyset}, {{b}}}$. This looks unnecessarily complicated, but it possesses some technical advantages over the others. (Wiener himself also remarked that “the particular method selected of doing this is largely a matter of choice”.) – MJD Apr 14 '22 at 17:06
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Just how you define order pairs concretely is an "implementation detail". Whichever definition you adopt just has to meet a basic requirement: from $\langle x, y \rangle$, you must be able to uniquely recover each of $x$ and $y$ with (preferably simple) functions $first(z)$ and $second(z)$.

The Kuratowski construction meets this criterion.

$first((x,y)) = x$

Note that $\{x\} = \{x\} \cap \{x,y\} = \bigcap \{\{x\}, \{x,y\}\} = \bigcap z$ where $z = (x,y)$. Now, as for any set, $\bigcup\{x\} = x$. So if $z = (x,y)$ then $x = \bigcup \bigcap z$, so we can define $first$ as: $$ first(z) = \bigcup \bigcap z. $$

$second((x,y)) = y$

Taking the union gives $\{x,y\} = \{x\} \cup \{x,y\} = \bigcup \{\{x\}, \{x,y\}\} = \bigcup z$ where $z = (x,y)$. Consider $\{x,y\} \setminus \{x\}$, which in terms of $z$ is $\bigcup z \setminus \bigcap z$. It's equal to $\emptyset$ if $y = x$, and equal to $\{y\}$ otherwise. So in any case we can recover (return) $y$ by defining $$ second(z) = \begin{cases} \\ &first(z)&\quad\text{if $\bigcup z \setminus \bigcap z = \emptyset$}, \\ &\bigcup (\bigcup z \setminus \bigcap z) &\quad\text{otherwise}, \\ \end{cases}$$

These definitions meet the essential requirement: $$ z = (x, y) \iff [first(z) = x \text{ and } second(z) = y], $$ and all three functions have elementary definitions.


A fact I used repeatedly and might as well prove: $\bigcup \{x\} = x$.

For any set $A$, $\bigcup A$ is the set of all things $z$ that are members of some thing $y$ in $A$: that is, $\bigcup A = \{ z\mid (\exists y\in A)\,z\in y\}$. In "union of a family of sets" notation, $\bigcup A = \bigcup_{a\in A} a$. So $\bigcup \{x\} = \{z\mid(\exists y\in \{x\})\,z\in y\} = \{z\mid(\exists y = x)\,z\in y\} = \{z\mid z\in x\} = x$.

BrianO
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  • Isn't $\bigcup A = A$, i.e, $\bigcup {x}={x}\neq x$? – YoTengoUnLCD May 02 '16 at 04:38
  • @YoTengoUnLCD No, it's not. I added the details to the end of the answer. – BrianO May 02 '16 at 05:48
  • Being able to make a working $first(x,y)$ and $second(x,y)$ sounds like a proposition $P$ as I've seen propositions used in abstract algebra. I guess I have to wrap my head around making a $first$ and $second$ function that, indeed, takes Kuratowski as he defined it and remains consistent. It's a bit like building a skyscraper from the top floor down. It now seems like K had these $first$ and $second$ functions in his head to start with, i.e., his method wasn't out of thin air, right? And yet I knew Axiom of Union might have something to do with this -- so I'm not totally dense! – 147pm May 03 '16 at 02:58
  • The essential intuition is as @AndresCaicedo said in a comment to your question: an $n$-tuple $(x_1, x_2, ... x_n)$ is represented by the set of $n$ increasing subsets ${x_1}, {x_1, x_2}, ... {x_1, x_2 ... x_n}$. These are linearly ordered by $\subseteq$. If you take their intersection you get ${x_1}$, etc. In the general case you'd define the projection functions by recursion, but think about how you would construct $first$, $second$ and $third$ in the case of $n = 3$. – BrianO May 03 '16 at 23:02
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The point of the ordered is for it to satisfy the following property: $$(a,b) = (c,d) \text{ if and only if }a=c\text{ and }b=d.$$ The definition given satisfies that condition; it doesn’t matter how it satisfies it, just that it does.

It is true that $(a,b)$ is both $\{ \{a\},\{a,b\}\}$ and $\{\{a\}, \{b,a\}\}$ and $\{\{a,b\},\{a\}\}$ and $\{\{b,a\},\{a\}\}$. It doesn’t matter: they are all the same set and they all “are” $(a,b)$. The point is that $(a,b)=(c,d)$ if and only if $a=c$ and $b=d$.

To verify that this happens, note that if $a=c$ and $b=d$, then $$(a,b) = \{\{a\},\{a,b\}\} = \{\{c\},\{c,d\}\} = (c,d).$$

Conversely, suppose that $(a,b)=(c,d)$. That means that the sets $\{\{a\},\{a,b\}\}$ and $\{\{c\},\{c,d\}\}$ are equal as sets.

To verify that this implies that $a=c$ and $b=d$, consider two cases:

Case 1. $a=b$. Then $(a,b) = \{ \{a\},\{a,b\}\} = \{\{a\},\{a,a\}\} = \{ \{a\}\}$.

As this is equal to $\{\{c\},\{c,d\}\}$, then $\{c\}\in\{\{a\}\}$, which means $\{c\}=\{a\}$, which means $c=a$. And $\{c,d\}\in\{\{a\}\}$, so $\{c,d\} = \{a\}$, hence $d=a=b$. Thus, $a=c$, and $b=d$ in this case.

Case 2. $a\neq b$.

Recall that is $X$ is a set, whose elements are sets, then $$\begin{align*} \cup X &= \bigcup_{S\in X}S\\ \cap X &= \{s\in\cup X\mid s\in S\text{ for all }S\in X\}. \end{align*}$$

If $(a,b) = (c,d)$, then, as sets, $\cap (a,b) = \cap (c,d)$. We have $$\begin{align*} \cap (a,b) &= \cap\{ \{a\},\{a,b\}\}\\ &= \{a\}\cap\{a,b\} = \{a\}\\ \cap (c,d) &= \cap \{ \{c\},\{c,d\}\}\\ &= \{c\}\cap\{c,d\} = \{c\}. \end{align*}$$ Therefore, $\{a\}=\{c\}$, so $a=c$.

And $\cup (a,b) - \cap (a,b)$ must be equal to $\cup(c,d)-\cap(c,d)$, so $$\begin{align*} \cup(a,b)-\cap(a,b) &= \cup\{ \{a\},\{a,b\}\} - \{a\}\\ &= (\{a\}\cup\{a,b\})- \{a\}\\ &= \{a,b\} - \{a\} = \{b\};\\ \cup(c,d)-\cap(c,d) &= \cup\{ \{c\}, \{c,d\}\} - \{c\}\\ &= (\{c\}\cup\{c,d\})-\{c\} = \{c,d\}-\{c\} = \{d\}, \end{align*}$$ so we must have $\{b\}=\{d\}$, and therefore $b=d$.

In both cases, if $(a,b)=(c,d)$, as sets, then $a=c$ and $b=d$.

Which is what we want from an ordered pair. So now that we know this definition will guarantee this, we can safely forget about it in general and just use the “defining property” of the ordered pair: $(a,b) = (c,d)$ if and only if $a=c$ and $b=d$.

Arturo Magidin
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  • Isn't ${a,{a,a}} = {a, {a}}$ and not ${{a}}$? – Charles Hudgins Sep 12 '19 at 03:33
  • @CharlesHudgins : Yes... so what? The ordered pair $(a,a)$ is ${{a},{a,a}}$, not ${a,{a,a}}$. – Arturo Magidin Sep 12 '19 at 03:35
  • I assume you're referring to Case 1; note that in case 1, the left-hand set you've written never appears. – John Hughes Sep 12 '19 at 03:35
  • Oh, apologies. I'm used to a different (wrong?) definition of $(a,b)$ as ${a, {a,b}}$. I just completely missed the difference. Using your definition, what you've written seems right. – Charles Hudgins Sep 12 '19 at 03:37
  • What is the point of the Kuratowski definition? The regular or standard definition is $(a,b) = (c,d) \text{ if and only if }a=c\text{ and }b=d$, it seems much simpler. Is there something vague or bad about the standard definition. Are we trying to reduce everything to sets, to the point of sometimes unnecessary complexity. – john Feb 23 '22 at 23:07
  • @CharlesHudgins At the cost of* – john Feb 23 '22 at 23:21
  • @john This definition takes place in the context of set theory, in a framework where we are trying to use set theory as the foundational basis of the rest of mathematics. What you describe as "regular definition" is not even a definition: it does not tell us what the object in question is, it just asserts that it has a property. Noe, you may decide to leave the notion undefined (make it a primitive notion), and then postulate that property as an axiom. That's a valid way to proceed. But it is not, in any way, shape, or form, a definiton. – Arturo Magidin Feb 24 '22 at 02:11
  • @john Now, do we have to reduce everything to sets? No. This is done by people interested in sets and in foundations. Just like you don't need to figure out a rigorous way to define a limit if all you are interested in is combinatorics of finite objects, if you don't plan to worry about foundations and sets, then you don't have to worry about whether it is possible to construct the notion of ordered pair out of sets. Just be aware, as I noted above, that you have not actually defined "ordered pair". It takes a lot more work to do so from scratch than you've expended. – Arturo Magidin Feb 24 '22 at 02:25
  • @john For instance, you could say "an ordered pair is a collection of two, not necessarily distinct, objects, with one designated as first, and the other as second. If the two objects are $x$ and $y$ with $x$ designated as first and $y$ as second, we will denote this as $(x,y)$, We will say the ordered pair $(x,y)$ is equal to the ordered pair $(a,b)$ if and only if $x=a$ and $y=b$." – Arturo Magidin Feb 24 '22 at 02:31
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Say you have the ordered pairs $(x,y),(a,b)$, i.e, $\{\{x\},\{x,y\}\}$, idem for the other.

What do you do if I ask them if they're equal? You test equality as sets. It turns out that they're equal iff $x=a$ and $y=b$ (why?).

YoTengoUnLCD
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We define $(x, y)$ as $\{\{x\}, \{x, y\}\}$. This absolutely implies an order: the first element of the ordered pair is the one that appears on its own in a singleton. $(y, x)$ would be $\{\{y\}, \{x, y\}\}$.

Take $\{\{5\}, \{3, 5\}\}$, for example. Is that $(5, 3)$ or $(3, 5)$? The correct answer is completely unambiguous.

Jack M
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We have that $$(a,b)=\{ \{a\},\{a,b\}\}$$ and that $$(b,a)=\{ \{b\},\{b,a\}\}=\{ \{b\},\{a,b\}\}$$ The two sets differ by a single element, namely $\{a\}$ and $\{b\}$.

azif00
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  • ... if $a\neq b$. Otherwise, both are equal to ${{a}}$. – Arturo Magidin Sep 12 '19 at 03:07
  • This is actually something I've long wondered about set theory. Do we identify ${a,a}$ with ${a}$? Is ${a,a}$ even a legal set? – Charles Hudgins Sep 12 '19 at 03:14
  • @CharlesHudgins Set cannot have duplicates because each element is distinct On the same note they are unordered.

    Problem is these definitions are not in one place and you need many texts etc.

    – New Student Sep 12 '19 at 03:17
  • So should we really say $(a,b) = {a,{a,b}}$ if $a \neq b$ and $(a,a) = {a, {a}}$? – Charles Hudgins Sep 12 '19 at 03:19
  • @ArturoMagidin care to answer this for charles. All I can notice is charles has listed his first element outside the set – New Student Sep 12 '19 at 03:29
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    @NewStudent: That’s not accurate. Sets are determined by their elements. The Axiom of Extensionality says that $A=B$ if and only if for every $x$, $x\in A\iff x\in B$. So the set ${a,a}$ is a perfectly “legal” set, and is equal to the set ${a}$ and to the set ${a,a,a,a,a,a,a,a}$, etc., because of the Axiom of Extensionality. It’s the same reason why ${a,b}$ is the same set as ${b,a}$ is the same set as ${a,b,a}$ is the same set as ${b,b,b,b,a,a,a,b,a,b,a,b,a,b}$, etc. – Arturo Magidin Sep 12 '19 at 03:30
  • Ah, so ${a,a}$ is fine, it just is ${a}$ at the level of sets. – Charles Hudgins Sep 12 '19 at 03:31
  • @CharlesHudgins: Yes. In ZF, the Axiom of Extensionality yields that ${a,a}$ is the same set as ${a}$. Similar axioms hold in every axiomatic set theory I am aware of. – Arturo Magidin Sep 12 '19 at 03:31
  • @ArturoMagidin so $\left {a,a\right }$ cardinality is 2 or 1 ? I am assuming the answer is 1 since it is the same as $\left {a\right }$ . Which book teaches you all this ? – New Student Sep 12 '19 at 03:32
  • @NewStudent: ${a,a}$ is bijectable with $1={\varnothing}$, it is not bijectable with $2={0,1}$. So its cardinality is $1$. You say you have Halmos’s “Naive Set Theory.” I strongly urge you to read it, then. This is all there. – Arturo Magidin Sep 12 '19 at 03:34
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    I'm not sure if logicians like it or not, but Halmos' Naive Set Theory is a pretty nice introduction for those of us who just want enough set theory to get on with other parts of mathematics. – John Hughes Sep 12 '19 at 03:34
  • @ArturoMagidin do you hang out in any chat rooms for futher questions from a newbie ? – New Student Sep 12 '19 at 03:36
  • @NewStudent: Sorry, no. – Arturo Magidin Sep 12 '19 at 03:36
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The order in sets usually has no impact. {a,b} = {b,a}

But the number of members in a set DOES have an impact. {a,b} $\neq$ {a,b,c}

The reason they are not equal is because {a,b} contains 2 members, while {a,b,c} contains 3 members. And if two sets have a different number of members then they are not equivalent to each other. They are different sets.

Kurtovsky uses this fact in an ingenious way. First he takes the ordered pair and puts it in a set which has two members. But, as opposed to the ordered pair, each of these members is a set in itself. Lets call them member-set-1 and member-set-2.

(a,b) = { member-set-1, member-set-2 }

Of course this in itself is no good. Because in set theory {a,b} = {b,a}. But watch closely:

Next he brings the members of the ordered set into his groups.

member-set-1 = {a}

This means that the first member of the Kurtovsky Pair Set contains the first member of the paired couple: $a$ in it. And only the first member. (The "Abscissa").

Inside the second member of the Kurtovsky Pair Set he brings BOTH members of the paired couple, both $a$ and $b$!

member-set-2 = {a,b}

Notice that $a$ - the "abscissa" - is in both the first and second members of the Kurtovsky Pair Set, but $b$ - the "ordinate" is only in the second member.

Now we'll see how Kurtovsky forced the mathematical notation to be used "against itself" so that any (x,y) where x is different from y, is not equal to (y,x).

According to the formula: (x,y) = { {x}, {x,y} } we have x twice and y once in the set. Right?

But according to the formula: (y,x) = { {y}, {y,x} } now we have y twice and x only once. Clearly NOT the same as (x,y).

Looking at it another way: (x,y) = { {x}... etc.

Meaning there is a set with x and only x in it.

While (y,x) = { {y}... etc. Here there is no set with x and only x in it. So clearly the two sets are different.

Nice.

pashute
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