That subject might not be quite accurate, but let me clarify.
At discrete times t=1,2,..., with probability 1 events of type X and Y produced by independent random processes happen infinitely often, but the expected gaps between any two Xs or Ys is nonfinite. Is it true, and if so how might one prove, that with probability 1 some X and Y will occur simultaneously?
(I'm wondering if the proof that one-dimensional simple random walks infinitely often return can transfer to two dimensions by some general principle.)
Thanks!