As lulu noted in a commented, this is the coupon collector's problem. The probability of having a complete set of $m$ coupons after drawing $n$ coupons is
$$
\def\stir#1#2{\left\{#1\atop#2\right\}}
\frac{m!}{m^n}\stir nm\;,
$$
where $\stir nm$ is a Stirling number of the second kind. For a derivation of this probability, see Probability distribution in the coupon collector's problem.
You have $m=262$ and want the probability to be at least $0.99$. Since we can't easily solve for $m$, we should try to get a good estimate so we don't have to compute too many Stirling numbers. The number of coupons you need to draw to have all coupons with probability $0.99$ should be close to the number you need to draw to make the expected number of undrawn coupons $0.01$. So
$$
m\left(1-\frac1m\right)^n\approx0.01\;,
$$
and solving for $n$ yields
$$
n\approx\frac{\log0.01-\log m}{\log\left(1-\frac1m\right)}\approx2660.37\;,
$$
and indeed calculating the exact probability for the values adjacent to $n=2660$ shows that, as Byron found, the probability $0.99$ is first reached at this value.