Let $f_n(x) = x^{1/n}$ where $n \in \mathbb N$, and let $g(x) = \log(x)$. We can compute $f_n'(x) = \frac{1}{n}x^{-1 + \frac{1}{n}}$ and $g'(x) = x^{-1}$. Let's define $f_\infty(x) = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} f_n(x)$. It will be everywhere assumed that $x > 0$.
If I've computed it correctly, it seems that $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} f_n'(x) = 0$ for any fixed $x > 0$. This means that for each $x \in \mathbb R^+$ $f_\infty$ is flat while $g$ is not.
But if instead we compute $\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{f_n(x)}{g(x)}$ for a fixed $n \in \mathbb N$ then we find that this limit equals $\infty$, suggesting that for each finite $n$ $f_n$ grows faster.
Initially I was thinking that maybe $\log$ was like the limiting case of $f_n$ but now I'm not so sure. Part of the issue is reconciling these two limits.
My question, then, is: can we think of $\log$ as the limiting case of $f_n$? If not, why?