I need to prove that:
$$\partial(A\times B) = ((\partial A)\times B)\cup (A\times(\partial B))$$
In other terms, the boundary of the cartesian product is the union of the things in the RHS.
I've found this question but it does not even provide an intuition.
If $x\in ((\partial A)\times B)\cup (A\times(\partial B))$, then certainly $x \in \partial(A\times B)$ because:
$$((\partial A)\times B)\cup (A\times(\partial B))$$
is the union of $$(\partial A, something)$$
with
$$(something, \partial B)$$ Any ideads on how to say it rigorously?
What about the other side of the proof? What does this result means?