I am currently trying to understand a proof from here that all perfect sets have the same cardinality as $\mathbb{R}$.
So given some perfect set $P \subseteq \mathbb{R}$, the identity mapping $\text{id}_{P}: P \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ given by $x \mapsto x$ is an injection and so now the goal is to create an injection from $\mathbb{R}$ to $P$ and then invoke the Schroder-Bernstein theorem.
The method outlined in the link is to construct an injection from the set of infinite binary sequences to $P$. They state that we can associate to each infinite binary sequence $\xi = \xi_{0}\xi_{1}\xi_{2}\cdots$ a real number in the interval $[0,1]$ via the mapping $$ \xi \mapsto \sum_{i \geq 0}\frac{\xi_{i}}{2^{i +1}} .$$ They then state that the cardinality of $P$ is at least as large as the cardinality $[0,1]$. This is the part I am having trouble with, i.e.
Why is the cardinality of $P$ at least as large as the cardinality of $[0,1]$?
To me it seems that we have constructed an injection from the set of infinite binary sequences (which has the same cardinality as $\mathbb{R}$) into $[0,1]$ and not into $P$.