Is there an intuitive geometric proof to this?
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I don't know exactly what you're looking for, but this might help. – Plutoro Apr 03 '16 at 00:53
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If a singular point of a tangent vector field $X$ means that $X(x)=0$, your assertion is not true. There exists parallelizable spheres, $S^1,S^3,S^7$ which are the only parallelizable spheres after results of Bott, Kervaire, Milnor.

Tsemo Aristide
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@user142702, if you meant that, then edit the question to that it means exactly what you mean. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Apr 03 '16 at 01:40