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So i've come across this question, with a follow up question of showing that the union of any two intervals need not be an interval.

I don't see how this could possibly be the case. The general structure of my proof would be to consider the case where:

  1. The intersection yields an empty set;
  2. The intersection yields a set with 1 element;
  3. The intersection yields a set with 2 or more elements;

and then consider each case and show that each is an interval.

But a union can only yield one of those three possibilities too. To elaborate: If any of the three possibilities were not an interval, then an intersection is not necessarily an interval, so each of them must be an interval. But each of these possibilities for the intersection are also the only possibilities for a union, meaning a union of intervals must be an interval too, which is not true.

I'm obviously wrong, but why?

daviegravee
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    $(0, 1) \cup (1,2)$ is not an interval – Steven Alexis Gregory Mar 30 '16 at 06:05
  • @stevenGregory why not? Wouldn't that yield ${0, 1, 2}$? That looks like an interval to me – daviegravee Mar 30 '16 at 06:17
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  • that does not look anything like an interval to me. That is only three separate points. An interval is all the values between two points. That is three points with none of the values between them. 2) that isn't even close to being the union of (0,1) and (1,2). The union is the set of all points in either of them. That would be all the points between 0 and 1 and all the points between 1 and 2. That would be all the points between 0 and 2 except 0, 1, and 2. Weirdly, you listed exactly all the points that are not in the union and none that are.
  • – fleablood Mar 30 '16 at 07:01
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    You are having a semantic issue "consider the case" does not mean the case requires the result. Suppose it said prove p is prime. Consider the two cases: p less than or equal to 2, and p >2. now prove q is not prime by considering the same two cases. The case don't mean p or q is or isn't prime. The cases just mean to consider them. – fleablood Mar 30 '16 at 07:19
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  • isn't nescessarily an interval. {0,1,2} isn't an interval. But {0,1,2} is never the intersection of two intervals.
  • – fleablood Mar 30 '16 at 07:22
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    BTW it depends on your course whether to consider case 1 or 2 intervals. If not the statement isn't true as case 1 and 2 are always possible. Also by the way, if 1 or two are intervals then case 1 or 2 are NOT possible with unions. – fleablood Mar 30 '16 at 07:25
  • Thanks @fleablood, good answers. It would appear I conflated interval with set. It looks like I tripped myself up somewhere along the way. – daviegravee Mar 30 '16 at 11:18
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    Ah, well the intersection, union, complement, etc. of any number of sets is a set. An interval is specifically in R a set written as (a,b) of all points x such that a < x <b for some numbers a and b. Some tweaking is done to allow a = -infinity or b= infinity. It's usually assumed that a < b although sometimes for proofs it's convenient to consider (a,b) with a>b to be the empty set ( as the set of a < x < b is empty) or [a,a] to be the singleton {a}. – fleablood Mar 30 '16 at 15:47
  • So if a < c < b < d the (a,b] is the set of all x s.t. a < x $\le b and (c, d) is the set of all x st c < x < d. So (a,b] $\cap $ (c,d) = the set where all four a < x: x $\le $ b; c <x; and x <d. Or in other words, a <c <x $\le $b <d. Or without superfluous info, where c <x $le$ b. In other words (a,b] $\cap $ (c,d) = (c,b]. – fleablood Mar 30 '16 at 15:55