For a real valued $m$ by $n$ matrix $M$ with $m<n$, why is the following true?
$$\det(I+MM^T) = \det(I+M^TM)\;?$$
To me this seems counter-intuitive as $\det(M^TM) = 0$.
For a real valued $m$ by $n$ matrix $M$ with $m<n$, why is the following true?
$$\det(I+MM^T) = \det(I+M^TM)\;?$$
To me this seems counter-intuitive as $\det(M^TM) = 0$.
This is an example of Sylvester's determinant law which states that for an $m\times n$ matrix $A$ and an $n\times m$ matrix $B$, $\operatorname{det}(I_m + AB) = \operatorname{det}(I_n + BA)$. In your case, $A = M$ and $B = M^T$.
using the SVD decomposition : $M = U S V^*, M^* = V S^* U^*$,
$$I + M M^* = U(SS^* +I)U^*, \qquad I + M^* M = V (S S^* +I) V^*$$
and $det(V A) = det(A) = det(A V)$ for any unitary matrix $V$, hence :
$$det(I+MM^* ) = det(I+M^* M) = det(I+S S^* )$$
if $M$ is real, then $M^* = M^T$ and you get what you asked.