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I want to prove that

$$\int_0^1 \log(\sin(\pi x))dx=-\log(2)$$

using the below contour enter image description here

So,I was trying with $f(z)= \log(\sin(\pi z))$ but I don't know how to compute the residue at $z=0$. The other function I picked was $f(z)=e^{-i \pi z}$ and since it is periodic with period $1$ we have that the integral over $\gamma_1$ and the one over $\gamma_2$ will cancel but the integral over $\gamma_3$ is not the one I want to compute, but in fact I think this didn't work since in this case $f$ is entire.

Another idea I had was to use the definition of the logarithm of a function but I don't know how to extract the desire integral from that information.

Can someone help me with this issue please?

Thanks a lot in advance.

gt6989b
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user162343
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