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I'm trying to prove this for a finite group $G$.

Along with the book's hint, I have the following proof:

Let $\operatorname{ord}(a)=n$. Then

$$(a^k)^n=a^{kn}=a^{nk}=(a^n)^k=e.$$

It follows that $kn$ is a multiple of $n$, so $kn=nb$ for an integer $b$. So, $k=b$.

But I'm not sure what $k=b$ gives me.

Moz
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Andrew's comment is good; a next step is to use the division algorithm and suppose toward a contradiction that ord$(a) = n = q $ ord$(a^k) + r$ (since you know ord$(a^k) \le $ord(a)).