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Short version of question: can a "continuous" convex combination not be element of the convex hull?

I am not a mathematician, so please excuse me if I am not precise. I consider first, e.g., 4 dimensional real valued vectors $a \in \mathbb{R}^4$. Now consider a set of $n$ vectors $a_i, i={1,2,...,n}$ and the set containing all convex combinations of these vectors \begin{equation} C=\left\{\sum_{i=1}^k \hat{w}_i a_i | k\in\{1,2,...,n\}, i\in\{1,2,...,n\}, \sum_{i=1}^k \hat{w}_i = 1, \hat{w}_i \geq 0 \forall i\right\} \ . \end{equation} As far as I understand the definition of the convex hull, see 3.definition in Wikipedia, the set $C$ is the convex hull of these vectors and trivially any convex combination of vectors lies in $C$.

Now, I am taking a look at the following problem over a non-convex region $\Omega \subset \mathbb{R}^2$ for vector valued vector functions $a(x) \in \mathbb{R}^4$ and $x \in \Omega$ \begin{equation} \lambda = \int_\Omega w(x) a(x) dx \in \mathbb{R}^4 \end{equation} with real valued $w(x) \in \mathbb{R}$ with the following properties \begin{equation} \int_\Omega w(x) dx = 1 , \quad w(x) \geq 0 \quad \forall x \in \Omega \end{equation} at what $w(x)$ is a distribution. Due to the properties of $w(x)$, I interpret for any $w(x)$ the integral $\lambda$ to be a "continuous" convex combination of the values of $a(x)$ over $\Omega$. The set of all possible $\lambda$ for all distributions $w(x)$ having the properties mentioned above will be denoted as \begin{equation} \Lambda = \left\{\lambda | \lambda = \int_\Omega w(x) a(x) dx , \int_\Omega w(x) dx = 1 , w(x) \geq 0 \quad \forall x \in \Omega\right\} \end{equation} and the convex hull of all values of $a(x)$ as \begin{equation} \Gamma = \left\{\sum_{i=1}^k \hat{w}_i a(x_i) | k\in\mathbb{N}, x_i \in \Omega, \sum_{i=1}^k \hat{w}_i = 1, \hat{w}_i \geq 0 \forall i\right\} \ . \end{equation}

Question: are the sets $\Lambda$ and $\Gamma$ the same or can I find a $w(x)$ such that the resulting $\lambda \not\in \Gamma$? This would be somehow very unintuitive for me, but I am not a mathematician. I keep thinking of this with Dirac distributions defined for $\Omega$ and the $n$ going to infinity in the case of simple vectors, as sketched at the beginning. Therefore, I can not imagine any case for which I should be able to combine values of $a(x)$ and end outside of $\Gamma$. But the more I read about distributions, the more weird things are possible! Any help is very appreciated. Thanks a lot!

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    There should not be any difference between the discrete and the continuous case,whatever the issue. Even if distributions (measures and generalized functions) are involved. – Jean Marie Feb 26 '16 at 21:15
  • @JeanMarie , ok thank you very much. Do you happen to know, where I could read about this? It would be interesting to read a proof. Thanks. – Mauricio Fernández Feb 26 '16 at 21:18
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    @JeanMarie It's worth noting that the fact that we're in finite dimensions matters a lot when you write that - these things are not the same in, say, $\ell^2$ (or any infinite dimensional Hilbert space). The main difference going discrete to continuous is that a limit gets involved in the latter, which isn't particularly harmful in finite dimensions. – Milo Brandt Feb 26 '16 at 21:36

2 Answers2

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As others have said the two sets are the same. The fact that $\Gamma\subset \Lambda$ essentially follows from the fact that a convex combination $\sum_1^k w_i a_i$ is equal to $\int a(x)w(x)\, dx$ with $w=\sum_1^k w_i\delta_{a_i}$ (Dirac deltas concentrated at $a_i$).

The opposite inclusion follows from Jensen's inequality. Consider the function (this is called characteristic (or indicator) function in convex analysis) $$I_\Gamma(x)=\begin{cases} 0 & x\in \Gamma \\ +\infty & x\notin \Gamma\end{cases}$$ This function is convex and $\Gamma=\{x\ :\ I_\Gamma(x)=0\}$. Now let $\lambda = \int a(x)w(x)\, dx\in\Lambda$. By Jensen's inequality $$ I_\Gamma(\lambda)\le \int I_\Gamma(a(x))w(x)\, dx=0, $$ so $I_\Gamma(\lambda)=0$, which means that $\lambda \in \Gamma$.

  • Cool, thank you! I learned a lot today, Jensen's inequality and the convextiy of the indicator function are very interesting! Thanks! – Mauricio Fernández Feb 26 '16 at 22:37
  • You are welcome. Glad it helped. – Giuseppe Negro Feb 26 '16 at 22:50
  • @GiuseppeNegro, are you sure that Jensen's inequality is applicable for extended real functions? Your proof should be wrong somewhere when an infinite dimensional space is considered but the proof seems to hold regardless of the dimension of underlying space. – Arash Mar 13 '17 at 18:50
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    @Arash: Yes, I am sure that Jensen's inequality holds for characteristic functions (in the sense of convex analysis). Such a function is the pointwise increasing limit of a sequence of finite-valued convex functions: $I_\Gamma(\lambda)=\lim_{n\to\infty}\phi_n(\lambda)$, with $\phi_n(\lambda)\le \phi_{n+1}(\lambda)$, so one can obtain Jensen's inequality by the monotone convergence theorem. As for the infinite-dimensional case, a problem might be the fact that in that case one has no Lebesgue measure. – Giuseppe Negro Mar 13 '17 at 23:59
  • @GiuseppeNegro That is very helpful. I'm working with the same problem in an infinite-dimensional space. So $x\in \Delta$, some compact metric space, $a(x)=x$. I re-wrote this proof on my own for my case and it seems to work (provided we assume Jensen works even when the convex function is not real-valued, as pointed out above). So where can this break down in my case? – Canine360 Jul 26 '21 at 01:50
  • @Canine360: what you ask for is not very clear, consider asking a separate question with all the details. As I said, in infinite dimension there is no canonical Lebesgue measure, so all the integrals that have been mentioned in this question make no obvious sense, you have to give a precise definition of all of them. This could be an interesting question, but you have to provide enough detail. – Giuseppe Negro Jul 27 '21 at 10:49
  • @GiuseppeNegro Thank you so much. I have posted the question here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4211951/can-a-continuous-convex-combination-not-be-element-of-the-convex-hull-infinit . Your inputs would be most appreciated. – Canine360 Jul 29 '21 at 11:19
  • @GiuseppeNegro Maybe I am nitpicking here, but for the "simple" direction $\Gamma \subseteq \Lambda$ you used Dirac delta distributions, while in the question it is explicitly stated that $w$ should be real-valued, $w(x)\in\mathbb{R}$. Does this pose a problem? – IljaKlebanov Mar 04 '23 at 20:31
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    @IljaKlebanov: ok, this is exactly the reason why I wrote "essentially". You need to put up a small and standard limiting argument if you want to be totally rigorous. – Giuseppe Negro Mar 04 '23 at 21:33
  • @GiuseppeNegro: sorry, while I do think Jensen's inequality should probably hold for the characteristic function, I don't think the argument you present for proving that is suitable for the case where $\Gamma$ is not a closed set - e.g. if $\Gamma$ is an open interval in the real line, then I don't think it's possible to find an increasing sequence of convex functions that converges to its characteristic function. – helloworld Jun 21 '23 at 16:00
  • More precisely: suppose $\Gamma$ is an open interval $(a,b)$. Suppose we want a pointwise increasing sequence $\phi_n$ of finite-valued convex functions on $\mathbb{R}$ that converge pointwise to $I_\Gamma$. In that case, each $\phi_n$ is upper bounded by $I_\Gamma$, so we have $\phi_n(x) \leq 0$ for all $x$ in $(a,b)$. But since each $\phi_n$ is a finite-valued convex function on the entire real line, it must be continuous, so this implies $\phi_n(a) \leq 0$. This means they can't converge pointwise to $I_\Gamma$, since $I_\Gamma(a)=+\infty$. – helloworld Jun 21 '23 at 16:02
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    @helloworld: I now see that you are answering this comment of mine. I was a bit confused, I have to say. You are right that the convex set must be closed for all of this to work. It should have been stated somewhere that we only consider closed convex sets. – Giuseppe Negro Jun 21 '23 at 16:22
  • Thanks! Sorry, I should have linked the relevant comment. (Although, I am starting to think that by using the argument in an answer https://math.stackexchange.com/a/4357726/, it should be possible to show Jensen's inequality for the extended reals - while that answer only considers the case where the domain is an interval, I think one might be able to more generally use a similar idea of redefining the convex function on the boundary of its domain so that it becomes lsc, in which case Jensen's inequality is known to hold for the extended reals (e.g. via a supporting-hyperplane proof).) – helloworld Jun 21 '23 at 17:43
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One solution is to consider the following characterization of convex sets:

A closed set is convex if and only if it is the intersection of closed half-spaces.

So, all half-spaces are of the form $x\cdot v \geq c$, so if we want to prove this in the case where $\Gamma$ is closed, all that we need is the following: If $a(x)\cdot v\leq c$ everywhere, then $\int_{\Omega}w(x)a(x)\cdot v\,dx\leq c$ for any distribution $w$. However, this is trivial by monotonicity: That integrand cannot exceed $w(x)c$ so the integral cannot exceed $\int_{\Omega}w(x)c\,dx = c$, as desired. This tells us that $\Lambda$ is a subset of $\text{cl}(\Gamma)$.

To work out the boundary, you just note that for any point $p$ on the boundary, there is at least one plane through it not intersecting the interior. Moreover, if $w(x)$ assigns positive weight a portion of $a(x)$ not on this plane, then the integral will not be on this plane (since it will be strictly below it). Otherwise, $w(x)$ only assigns weight on that plane, in which case we're dealing with the two dimensional analog of the problem (since the intersection of that plane and $\Omega$ and $\Gamma$ acts as expected). So, we can work out an induction proof on dimension that will make sure the boundary works out.

Milo Brandt
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  • uiiii, thank you very much. Somehow I dont get why $\Lambda$, a set of 4-dimensional vectors, is a subset of the closure of of $\Omega$, a set of 2-dimensional vectors (at least in this example). Do you also mean "then $\int_\Omega w(x) a(x) \cdot v dx \leq c$" in the middle paragraph? – Mauricio Fernández Feb 26 '16 at 21:42
  • @MauricioLobos Ah, I meant $\Lambda\subseteq \text{cl}(\Gamma)$, and yes, the other was a typo. (It's worth noting that $\Omega$ never comes into the argument; we could even formulate our weight function $w$ in terms of a measure, and eliminate the domain) – Milo Brandt Feb 26 '16 at 21:44
  • Ok, awesome, thank you! Since I am an engineer, I had only a "feeling" that $\Omega$ would not be crucial but I have to first digest the last paragraph. By "make sure the boundary works out" you mean that the limit points of $\Gamma$ belonging to $\text{cl}(\Gamma)$ (which do not belong to $\Gamma$) belong to $\Lambda$? Sorry, my English is not that good, I just think I dont understand the meaning there. – Mauricio Fernández Feb 26 '16 at 22:00
  • As a small addendum to this answer, this proof is spelled out in detail in Proposition 0.2 of http://www.mat.unimi.it/users/libor/AnConvessa/Jensen.pdf – helloworld Jun 24 '23 at 21:15