We define sequences $(f_n)$ and $(g_n)$ of functions on the interval $(0, 1]$ such that
$$ f_{1}(x) = x, \quad f_{n+1}(x) = f_n(x) + \frac{f_n(x)^2}{n^2}, \quad g_n(x) = \frac{1}{f_n(x)}. $$
We make several observations:
Since $f_n$ is positive and monotone increasing in $n$, $g_n$ is positive and monotone decreasing in $n$.
Each $g_n$ is indefinitely differentiable on $(0, 1]$ and satisfies
\begin{align*}
g'_{n+1}(x) &= g'_n(x) \left( 1 - \frac{1}{(n^2 g_n(x) + 1)^2} \right), \\
g''_{n+1}(x) &= g''_n(x) \left( 1 - \frac{1}{(n^2g_n(x) + 1)^2} \right) + \frac{2n^2 g'_n(x)^2}{(n^2 g_n(x) + 1)^3}.
\end{align*}
Starting from $g_1'(x) = -1/x^2 < 0$ and $g_1''(x) = 2/x^3 > 0$, we can inductively prove that $g'_n \leq 0$ and $g''_n \geq 0$ for all $n$. (In other words, $g_n$ is convex and decreasing.)
By induction, we can check that $g_n(1) = 1/n$ and $g'_n(1) = -\prod_{k=2}^{n} (1 - k^{-2})$.
Now we are ready to prove the claim. By 2, we find that for all $x \in (0, 1]$
$$ |g'_n(x)| = -g_n'(x) \geq -g_n'(1) = |g_n'(1)|. $$
Thus by the mean value theorem, there exists $c$ between $x$ and $1$ such that
$$ g_n(x) - g_n(1) = -g_n'(c)(1 - x) \geq |g'_n(1)|(1 - x). $$
Taking $n \to \infty$ and utilizing 3, we have
$$ \lim_{n\to\infty} g_n(x) \geq (1 - x) \prod_{n=2}^{\infty} \left(1 - \frac{1}{n^2} \right). $$
If we write $c = \prod_{k=2}^{\infty} (1 - k^{-2}) > 0$, this implies
$$ \lim_{n\to\infty} f_n(x) \leq \frac{1}{c(1-x)} \quad x \in [0, 1)$$
and therefore the conclusion follows.
Addendum. Let us first show that $g_n'$ converges uniformly on any compact subinterval of $(0, 1]$ as $n \to \infty$. To this end, we investigate
$$ \left| g_n'(x) - \lim_{n\to\infty} g_n'(x) \right|
= |g_n'(x)| \left[ 1 - \prod_{k=n+1}^{\infty} \left( 1 - \frac{1}{(k^2 g_k(x) + 1)^2} \right) \right]. $$
On any $[a, 1] \subset (0, 1]$, we have the following estimates:
Combining these two observations, we have the following uniform estimate
$$ \left| g_n'(x) - \lim_{n\to\infty} g_n'(x) \right|
\leq \frac{1}{a^2} \left[ 1 - \prod_{k=n+1}^{\infty} \left( 1 - \frac{1}{(k+1)^2} \right) \right]. $$
It is not hard to check that this bound goes to 0 as $n\to\infty$, and hence $g_n'$ converges uniformly on $[a, 1]$. As a consequence, $g(x) = \lim_n g_n(x)$ converges uniformly on $[a, 1]$, is differentiable and $ g'(x) = \lim_{n\to\infty} g_n'(x)$. This shows that
$$ g'(1) = -\prod_{n=2}^{\infty} \left( 1 - \frac{1}{n^2} \right) = -\frac{1}{2}. $$
Equivalently, we have
$$ \lim_{x \to 1^-} (1-x)f(x) = - \lim_{x \to 1^-} \frac{x - 1}{g(x) - g(1)} = -\frac1{g'(1)} = 2. $$