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The group $R_p$ is the group of all integers $q$ with $1\leq q \leq p-1$, where the greatest common factor of $p$ and $q$ is 1.

I'm aware of this proof but I was thinking of an alternate route. What if I could define a mapping from $R_p$ to $\mathbb{Z_{p-1}}$ and show that it is an isomorphism. Then the "cyclicity" of $\mathbb{Z_{p-1}}$ carries over to $R_p$. How could I define such a mapping? Is it possible?

Jacopo Stifani
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2 Answers2

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Finding an isomorphism $R_p \to \mathbb Z_{p-1}$ is the same as finding a generator of $R_p$. If you are this point, you have already shown that $R_p$ is cyclic. There is no "totally trivial" proof of this fact. The proof will always be the same work as the proof that any finite subgroup of $K^*$ (for a field $K$) is cyclic.

MooS
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The "identity" map works. Map the integer $a$ to the coset $a+p\mathbb{Z}$, which is clearly an isomorphism.