I'm having some trouble proving this: Suppose $A$ is a rectangular $m\times n$ matrix ($m > n$),
If $A$ has a full column rank ($\text{r}(A)=n$) then so does $A^TA$ (= it is invertible)
I read a proof that tries to show that $\mathcal{N}(A)=\{\mathbf 0\}$ implies $\mathcal{N}( A^TA)=\{\mathbf 0\}$, but I can't understand why that is right.
Thanks for your time.