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I have seen the thread Show that $x^4-10x^2+1$ is irreducible over $\mathbb{Q}$ but this didn't really have a full solution.

Is it true that if it is reducible then it can be factored into a linear factor or quadratic factor in the form $x^2 - a$. Is $a$ in the rationals? And what exactly is a linear factor.

What I did was the following:

Let $y=x^2$. Then $y^2 - 10y +1=0 \iff y^2 -10y = -1$, add $25$ to both sides:

$$y^2 - 10y + 25 = -1 + 25 \iff (y - 5)^2 = 24 \iff y = 5 \pm 2\sqrt6$$

So $x^2=5 \pm 2 \sqrt6= (\sqrt2 \pm \sqrt3 )^2$

So $x^4 -10x^2 +1 =(x^2 -(\sqrt2 + \sqrt3 )^2)(x^2 - (\sqrt2 - \sqrt3)^2)$

Then difference of two squares:

$ (x-(\sqrt2 + \sqrt3))(x+(\sqrt2 + \sqrt3))(x-(\sqrt2 - \sqrt3))(x+(\sqrt2 - \sqrt3))=0$

Expanding this out gives $x^4 -10x^2 +1 =0$ so we have found all the roots and we can confirm that they are the roots right? None of these roots are rational so it must be irreducible?

Please can you advise me on this method that I am using and not direct me to a theorem or any type of shortcut.

Thanks in advance.

snowman
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    If you say that you don’t want to use any theorem, then in this business, you’re barking up the wrong tree. Even though the number of cases where it can come in handy is small, Eisenstein is still the first recourse, because when it does work, it is quick. Proving irreducibility is rather like Techniques of Integration in Calculus: there are a lot of methods to be used, but no one of them works all the time. If you were to try to prove, say, a sextic irreducible by the hands-on method you are insisting on, you’d probably be spending all year at it. – Lubin Feb 21 '16 at 15:21

6 Answers6

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Adding a method using the roots that you found directly (I deleted my other answer, and relocated it to the companion thread because it properly belongs there, but is misplaced here).

You have correctly identified that the zeros of $$ p(x)=x^4-10x^2+1 $$ are $x_1=\sqrt2+\sqrt3$, $x_2=\sqrt2-\sqrt3$, $x_3=-\sqrt2+\sqrt3$ and $x_4=-\sqrt2-\sqrt3$. Therefore over the reals we have the factorization $$ p(x)=(x-x_1)(x-x_2)(x-x_3)(x-x_4). $$

Others have already explained to you why it is not sufficient to check that none of the roots are rational - namely that the polynomial could still have quadratic factors with rational coefficients. But, we can take advantage of the list of zeros to exclude that possibility as well.

If $p(x)=f(x)g(x)$ were a factorization as a product of two quadratics with rational coefficients, then $x_1$ must be a zero of one of the factors. Without loss of generality we can assume that $f(x_1)=0$. This means that the other zero of $f(x)$ must be either $x_2,x_3$ or $x_4$. But we can check that none of $$ \begin{aligned} (x-x_1)(x-x_2)&=(x-\sqrt2)^2-(\sqrt3)^2=x^2-2\sqrt2x-1\\ (x-x_1)(x-x_3)&=(x-\sqrt3)^2-(\sqrt2)^2=x^2-2\sqrt3x+1\\ (x-x_1)(x-x_4)&=x^2-(\sqrt2+\sqrt3)^2=x^2-5-2\sqrt6 \end{aligned} $$ have rational coefficients. Therefore $p(x)$ has no quadratic factors with rational coefficients, and hence must be irreducible.

Jyrki Lahtonen
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    @snowman, is this closer to how you would like to see the argument go? – Jyrki Lahtonen Feb 21 '16 at 12:50
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    Definitely! Something is finally making sense now, after 2 hours... – snowman Feb 21 '16 at 12:52
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    You wrote This means that the other zero of $f(x_1)$ must be either $x_2, x_3$ or $x_4$. Should it not be $f(x)$??? – snowman Feb 21 '16 at 13:05
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    Also, near the end, you said "have rational coefficients. Therefore p(x)...". But don't they have irrational coefficients???? – snowman Feb 21 '16 at 13:13
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    Correct. It should be $f(x)$, not $f(x_1)$. The last sentence is about none of the factors having rational coefficients (because the irrational numbers $\sqrt2,\sqrt3$ and $\sqrt6$ appear). – Jyrki Lahtonen Feb 21 '16 at 14:13
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$(x^2+1)(x^2+2)$ has no rational roots, but is clearly reducible over $\mathbb{Q}[x]$, so your method is incorrect. In general the factors of a reducible polynomial may not be linear, so it may be reducible without having roots in the base field.

user21820
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It is not true that if a polynomial of the form $x^4 + b x^2 + c \in \Bbb Q[x]$ is a product of two quadratics in $\Bbb Q[x]$ then the quadratics have the form $x^2 + a$. Consider, for example, $$x^4 + x^2 + 1 = (x^2 + x + 1)(x^2 - x + 1).$$ (These quadratics both have negative discriminant and so are irreducible, so this is the only factorization into [monic] quadratics.) It is true, however, that since any polynomial of the above form is even, if it is a product of two quadratics, there is a factorization of the form $$(x^2 + a x + b)(x^2 - a x + b).$$ In the case of $$f(x) := x^4 - 10x^2 + 1$$ expanding and solving for $a, b$ quickly leads to a contradiction.

Note that by the Rational Root Theorem, any rational root of $f(x)$ is either $\pm 1$, but neither of these are roots, so $f(x)$ has no linear factors, and hence it is irreducible.

Note, by the way, that the irrationality of all of the roots of a polynomial does not imply that the polynomial is irreducible, at least for polynomials of degree $\geq 4$. Consider the simple case $(x^2 - 2)^2$, which is visibly reducible but only has (irrational) roots $\pm \sqrt{2}$.

Travis Willse
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    Would it be possible to not use this Rational Root theorem please. We haven't even come across (don't think we will) of Gauss lemma which I am assuming it is an application to. I think we are meant to work this out from scratch. – snowman Feb 21 '16 at 12:41
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    This is a response to everything before your last two paragraphs. You said to solve for $a$ and $b$. So $$x^4-10x^2+1=(x^2-(\sqrt2 + \sqrt3)^2)(x^2-(\sqrt2 - \sqrt3)^2)$$ which means $b=-(\sqrt2 - \sqrt3)^2$ and $b=-(\sqrt2 + \sqrt3)^2$ which is not possible. Is this all we have to do to prove that it is irreducible?? – snowman Feb 21 '16 at 12:47
  • The product of quadratics you wrote down does not have the form indicated in my answer, so my indication to "solve for $a$ and $b$" does not apply to it. For the product I wrote down, multiplying out gives $x^4 + (2b - a^2) x^2 + b^2$, and comparing like coefficients gives the system $-10 = 2b - a^2$, $1 = b^2$. Again, to show that a quartic is irreducible, it suffices to show that it has no linear or quadratic factors. – Travis Willse Feb 21 '16 at 12:55
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You have correctly identified the roots.

You may want to show that none of them are rational, so you know your polynomial has no rational factor of degree 1.

It could still be the product of two rational polynomials of degree $2$. To rule this out, prove that the three products of a fixed linear factor, $x-(\sqrt{2} + \sqrt{3})$, say, by each of the other three linear factor never gives a rational polynomial.


To answer your other questions, a linear factor is a factor of degree one. And a generic quadratic factor is of the form $x^{2} + a x + b$. For instance the polynomial $$ (x^{2} + x + 1)^{2} $$ can only be written as the product of irreducible, monic, rational polynomials as $$ (x^{2} + x + 1) \cdot (x^{2} + x + 1), $$ and none of them has the form $x^{2} - a$.

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First note that it suffices to show the polynomial is irreducible over $\mathbb{Z}$. We then note that $p(x)=x^4-10x^2-1$ splits either as $$(x-a)(x^3+bx^2+cx+d)$$ or as $$(x^2+bx+c)(x^2+dx+e)$$ In the first case $a$ would be a root of $p$, but by the rational root theorem the polynomial has no roots in $\mathbb{Q}$ (and hence not in $\mathbb{Z}$). In the second case $$(x^2+bx+c)(x^2+dx+e)=x^4+(b+d)x^3+(e+c+bd)x^2+(be+dc)x+ec$$ so $e=c=\pm 1$, $b=-d$, filling this in we find $$x^4+(b+d)x^3+(e+c+bd)x^2+(be+dc)x+ec=x^4+(2-b^2)+1$$ and $2-b^2=-10$ has no solution in $\mathbb{Z}$.

user2520938
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It's quite easy to find a factorization over $\mathbb{R}$: \begin{align} p(x)=x^4-10x^2+1 &=(x^2-1)^2-8x^2 \\[6px] &=(x^2-2\sqrt{2}\,x-1)(x^2+2\sqrt{2}\,x-1) \\[6px] &=(x-(\sqrt{2}+\sqrt{3}))(x-(\sqrt{2}-\sqrt{3}))\\ &\qquad \cdot (x-(-\sqrt{2}+\sqrt{3}))(x-(-\sqrt{2}-\sqrt{3}))\\ \quad \end{align}

Our task is to show that $p(x)$ is the minimal polynomial of $\sqrt{2}+\sqrt{3}$, which implies it is irreducible. If not, the degree of $\sqrt{2}+\sqrt{3}$ over $\mathbb{Q}$ would be less than $4$. However $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}+\sqrt{3})=\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3})$ (prove it), which has degree $4$ over $\mathbb{Q}$, because $\sqrt{3}\notin\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2})$.

egreg
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