Here's a (possibly sloppily written) Induction proof that has me stumped. It's the first example from here and supposedly the statement holds?
(*) For n > 1, 2 + 2^2 + 2^3 + 2^4 + ... + 2^n = 2^n+1 – 2
Let n = 1. Then:
2 + 2^2 + 2^3 + 2^4 + ... + 2^n = 2^1 = 2
...and:
2^n+1 – 2 = 2^1+1 – 2 = 2^2 – 2 = 4 – 2 = 2
So (*) works for n = 1.
Assume, for n = k, that (*) holds; that is, that
2 + 2^2 + 2^3 + 2^4 + ... + 2^k = 2^k+1 – 2
Let n = k + 1.
I understand this part. This is where I get lost. (I understand that first we set n=k and then n=k+1 but the equations are sloppy and I don't follow how both sides are "equal" as the original statement asks me to prove.
2 + 2^2 + 2^3 + 2^4 + ... + 2^k + 2^k+1 | (I assume this is the left side)
= [2 + 2^2 + 2^3 + 2^4 + ... + 2^k] + 2^k+1| (still on the left side)
= [2^k+1 – 2] + 2^k+1 | (now we are on the right side??)
= 2×2^k+1 – 2 | (right side simplified)
= 2^1×2^k+1 – 2
= 2^k+1+1 – 2
= 2^(k+1)+1 – 2
Then (*) works for n = k + 1.
Ok, so what is the final conclusion? Looks to me the sides are not equal but it's not evident what the final answer is. Seems like the statement "Then (*) works for n = k + 1." suggests that the statement holds true but I fail to see why. Thanks!