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Is the infinity of irrational numbers equal to the infinity of rational numbers? Or is one is greater than other? And what is the proof? I could not find out a rigorous proof about this.

P.S. I am interested in which set of numbers is more dense - rational or irrational. Other similar questions do not consider the density of the numbers.

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    Related : http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/93251/what-is-the-ratio-of-rational-to-irrational-real-numbers?rq=1 – Watson Feb 19 '16 at 14:42
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  • There are more irrationals than rationals. 2. They are both equally dense, as this word has a precise mathematical meaning that they share.
  • – vadim123 Feb 19 '16 at 14:44
  • @vadim123 Does not (2) contradict (1)? And can you show me a rigorous proof? – SchrodingersCat Feb 19 '16 at 14:45
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    @SchrodingersCat : density is a topological notion, and has in general nothing to do with cardinality. – Watson Feb 19 '16 at 14:46
  • @SchrodingersCat Re: a rigorous proof, this is Cantor's diagonal argument, which can be found in a number of questions on this site, or by googling in general. – Noah Schweber Feb 19 '16 at 15:04