Let $B_t$ be a one-dimensional standard Brownian motion.
Is it true that, almost surely, for every $x \in \mathbb{R}$ the set $\{t : B_t = x\}$ is uncountable?
Let $A_x$ be the event that $\{t : B_t = x\}$ is uncountable. It is well known that $\mathbb{P}(A_0) = 1$. By recurrence and the strong Markov property, we also have $\mathbb{P}(A_x) = 1$ for every $x$. I am asking about the probability of $A = \bigcap_{x \in \mathbb{R}} A_x$. Because of the uncountable intersection, it is not even obvious that this set is measurable.
George Lowther in this comment says the answer is yes, but I don't see how to prove it.