0

Leibniz rule or Laplace transform?

Let $y(t)$ be a continuous function on $[0,\infty)$. If $$y(t) = t\left(1-4\int_0^ty(x)\,dx\right)+4\int_0^tx\,y(x)\,dx,$$ then $\int_0^{\pi/2} y(t)\,dt$ is equal to __________.

Source.

I solved this question using Leibniz rule and converting this Fredholm integral equation into ordinary differential equation and got my answer to be $0.5$.

First of all is it correct?
Secondly somebody said you could solve this using Laplace transformation also assuming it exists for $y$? Can be somebody show me how to do this?

0 Answers0