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If $a^n\equiv a \pmod n$ for all integers $a$, does this imply that $n$ is prime?

I believe this is the converse of Fermat's little theorem.

YoTengoUnLCD
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2 Answers2

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No, the converse of Fermat's Little Theorem is not true. For a particular example, $561 = 3 \cdot 11 \cdot 17$ is clearly composite, but $$ a^{561} \equiv a \pmod{561}$$ for all integers $a$. This is known as a Carmichael Number, and there are infinitely many Carmichael Numbers.

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Here is one more example:
We see that $341 = 11 \cdot31$ and $2^{340} = 1\mod341$
To show this we see that by routine calcultions the following relations hold $$2^{11} = 2\mod31 $$ $$ 2^{31} = 2 \mod 11$$

Now by using Fermat's little theorem $$ ({2^{11}})^{31} = 2^{11} \mod 31 $$ but $2^{11} = 2 \mod 31$ so I leave you to fill the details of showing $2^{341} = 2 \mod 341$.

Infinity_hunter
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  • Although this is the standard "Burton counterexample", we should note that it is not really a counterexample to Fermat's Little Theorem (see this for details). – Sayan Dutta Aug 29 '22 at 12:34