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Where is the flaw in this argument of a proof that 1=2? (Derivative of repeated addition)
\begin{align*} x^2 &= \underbrace{x + x + x + \dots + x}_{x \text{ times}}, \\ \therefore \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x} (x^2) &= \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x} (\underbrace{x + x + x + \dots + x}_{x \text{ times}}) \\ &= \underbrace{1 + 1 + 1 + \dots + 1}_{x \text{ times}} \\ &= x. \end{align*}
But we know that $$ \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x} (x^2) = 2x. $$
So what is the problem?
My take is that we cannot differentiate both sides because $\underbrace{{x+x+x+\cdots+x}}_{x \text{ times}}$ is not fixed and thus $1$ is not equal to $2$.