Somehow I learnt that the limit of $ne^{-an}$ (for $a > 0$) is $0$ as $n$ goes to infinity. I was trying to convert the expression to the form $\frac{e^{-an}}{\frac{1}{n}}$ and then use the L'Hôpital's rule but then I am getting the symbol $0\cdot \infty$ over and over again. How can prove it?
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2What about $\frac{n}{e^{an}}$ instead? – André Nicolas Feb 03 '16 at 03:38
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@AndréNicolas, oh, I didn't think about just simplifying this. It's so obvious. Thank you! – wizdoz Feb 03 '16 at 04:01
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@LiveForever, it was a mistake (I didn't noticed 'without'), already fixed it. – wizdoz Feb 03 '16 at 04:01
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@wizdoz: You are welcome. – André Nicolas Feb 03 '16 at 04:03
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The original post had a tag "No L'Hospital's Rule." The ensuing presentation was written under that constraint.
In THIS ANSWER, I showed using only (i) the limit definition of the exponential function and Bernoulli's Inequality that the exponential function satisfies the inequality
$$e^x\ge \left(1+\frac xn\right)^n$$
for $x>-n$. We can set $n=2$ and assert that for $x>-2$,
$$e^x\ge 1+x+\frac14 x^2$$
Then, we have
$$\begin{align} 0&< ne^{-an}\\\\ &=\frac{n}{e^{an}}\\\\ &\le\frac{n}{1+an+\frac14 (an)^2} \end{align}$$
whereupon applying the squeeze theorem yield the expected limit!

Mark Viola
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