Question on probability of random selection of point on a plane.

Asked Feb 02 '16 at 14:04

Active Feb 02 '16 at 14:11

Viewed 88 times

Let us consider a plane.As we know, a plane has infinite no. of points. Let us say we have a point P. Then the probability of choosing P from the plane would be 1-over-infinity, which is 0. But what if P is actually chosen? This means that P has a chance of being selected.

I would like to know if I am conceptually wrong, or if this is a valid question.

Thanks,

Sandeep.

edited Feb 02 '16 at 14:11

asked Feb 02 '16 at 14:04

Sandeep

3

Zero probability is not the same as impossible. – StackTD Feb 02 '16 at 14:04
You are adding infinitely many infinitesimally small probabilities, whose sum is finite and equals 1. – GoodDeeds Feb 02 '16 at 14:07
@StackTD: What if P is chosen, despite the zero probability? – Sandeep Feb 02 '16 at 14:12
Nothing 'happens'... ;-). What do you mean exactly; or what do you expect? You could also check Zero probability and impossibility and Does 0% chance mean impossible? – StackTD Feb 02 '16 at 14:15
@Sandeep that is what StackTD is saying. Something can have probability zero but still be chosen because 0 probability does not imply impossibility. If it helps you can think of the point having infinitesimally small probability. – Hugh Feb 02 '16 at 14:15
In reality, you can't pick/describe a specific point due to measurement error, so every "point" has a positive probability in fact. – A.S. Feb 02 '16 at 17:40

Question on probability of random selection of point on a plane.

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