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Question arose in the context of probability: If $Y$ is $F-$measurable and $h$ is some function, $h(Y)$ is $F-$measurable if $h$ is a measurable function (Doob-Dynkin).

For example, let $f(x,y)$ be the joint density function of random variables $X$ and $Y$, $g(x)$ be some integrable function, and $h(y)=\int g(x)f(x,y)\,dx/\int f(x,y)\,dx$; then $h(y)$ is measurable - I wondered if there is some rule of thumb that tells me this quickly, since I remembered someone saying, "Any function you can write down is measurable."

Thanks!

manofbear
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