In a normed space, we know that if a set is open and connected, it is path connected. Is it true for general metric space or general topological space?
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Martin Sleziak
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89085731
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Not true in general for topological spaces. Consider for example the "long line topology" which is built from gluing uncountably many $[0, 1)$s together + a positive infinity at one end. The simple fact is that even though it's connected, it's just too long for there to be a continuous map from $[0, 1]$ so that $0 \mapsto 0$ and $1 \mapsto \infty$. – daniel gratzer Jan 18 '16 at 16:18
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@A.P. it doesn't discuss metric space there. – 89085731 Jan 18 '16 at 17:01
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For general topological spaces the answer is no. See here for a nice counterexample, the union of the graph of $\sin(1/x)$ and $\{0\}$:
http://topospaces.subwiki.org/wiki/Connected_not_implies_path-connected
If your space is locally path-connected, i.e. every point has a path-connected neighborhood, then connected implies path connected. This particularly holds for normed vector spaces, since any open ball around a point is path-connected.
So for metric spaces, connectedness and path-connectedness are equivalent, but for general topological spaces not.

Stephan Mescher
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Sorry, my original statement was wrong. The question of local path-connectedness is more sophisticated than I thought... – Stephan Mescher Jan 18 '16 at 17:17
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It is not true. The typical counterexample is the "topologist's sine curve". $$\{(t,\sin(1/t):t>0\}\cup \{(0,y):-1\le y\le 1\}.$$

Martin Sleziak
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Tim Raczkowski
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