Let $(f_n)$ be a sequence in $L_p[0,1]$ ($1<p<\infty$) such that $f_n\to f\in L_p[0,1]$ pointwise almost everywhere. If there exists $M>0$ such that $\|f_n\|_p\le M$ for all $n$, and $g\in L^q[0,1]$, where $\dfrac{1}{p}+\dfrac{1}{q}=1$, then:
$$\int fg=\lim_{n\to\infty}\int f_ng.$$
I tried this with the Hölder's inequality:
$$\left|\int fg-\int f_ng\right|\le \|f_n-f\|_p\|g\|_q.$$
I'm not sure we can say directly that $\|f_n-f\|_p\to 0$. Perhaps with uniformly convergence/Egorov's theorem?
By Egorov's theorem, if $\epsilon>0$ there exists $A\subseteq[0,1]$ such that $\lambda(A^c)<\epsilon$ and $f_n\to f$ uniformly on $A$. It is clear then $$\int _Afg=\lim_{n\to\infty}\int_A f_ng,$$ since uniformly convergence implies $L_p$-convergence.
But I don't know how to do it on $A^c$. Also, why is $\|f_n\|_p\le M$ required?
Thank you.
Edited wrong title. Sorry.