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I want to show that if $x$ is rational and nonzero then $e^x$ is irrational.

Clearly $e^{\frac{r}{s}} = \frac{p}{q} \Rightarrow q^s e^r = p^s$, but this doesn't seem helpful. The usual proof that $e$ is irrational doesn't look like it can be extended either.

rnaylor
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You are on the right track.

Knowning that $e$ is transcendental, the algebraic equation $q^sz^r-p^s=0$ cannot have $e$ as a root.

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    Yeah but how do you know $e$ is transcendental? See Theorem 1 page 30 of this book. They spend pages to prove this, so it can't be that easy: http://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/download?doi=10.1.1.167.5285&rep=rep1&type=pdf – Gregory Grant Jan 12 '16 at 16:16
  • Transcendence of $e$ is taken for granted and we show that it implies the irrationality of $e^x$ for $x$ rational. –  Jan 12 '16 at 16:24
  • I don't see the transcendental assumption in the statement of the question. – Gregory Grant Jan 12 '16 at 16:27
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    So: maybe (?) the point of the question is that proving $e^x$ irrational for all rational $x$ is easier than proving $e$ transcendental. – GEdgar Jan 12 '16 at 16:31