Coupon collector's problem asks:
Given n coupons, how many coupons do you expect you need to draw with replacement before having drawn each coupon at least once?
The well-known solution is $E(T)=n \cdot H_n$, where T is the time to collect all n coupons(proof).
I am trying to approach another way, by calculating possible arrangements of coupons using inclusion-exclusion(Stirling's numbers of the second kind) and that one coupon should only be collected at last and other coupons should be collected at least once: $$P(T=k)=\frac{n!\cdot{k-1\brace n-1}}{n^k}\\ =\frac{\sum\limits_{i=1}^{n-1}(-1)^{n-i-1}\cdot{n-1\choose i}\cdot i^{k-1}}{n^{k-1}}\\ E(T)=\sum\limits_{k=n}^{\infty}k\cdot P(T=k)\\ =\sum\limits_{k=n}^{\infty}k\cdot\frac{\sum\limits_{i=1}^{n-1}(-1)^{n-i-1}\cdot{n-1\choose i}\cdot i^{k-1}}{n^{k-1}}\\ =\sum\limits_{i=1}^{n-1}(-1)^{n-i-1}\cdot{n-1\choose i}\cdot\sum\limits_{k=n}^{\infty}k\cdot (\frac i n)^{k-1}\\ =\sum\limits_{i=1}^{n-1}(-1)^{n-i-1}\cdot{n-1\choose i}\cdot(\frac i n)^{n-1}\cdot(\frac 1 {1-\frac i n})\cdot(n-1+\frac 1 {1-\frac i n})$$
Calculation of first 170 terms yields same results.
Are two formulas same?