Alright, recently there was a question on 9gag whether the digits of $\pi$ may contain $\pi$ itself here's the original. One user had - in my opinion - a really plausible answer:
Nevertheless, I would still argue that $\pi$ can "contain" itself. Since $\pi$ is a non-ending sequence of decimal places, consider that the starting index of the repetition can be an infinitely large natural number. We therefore have an infinite non-repeating sequence prior to that index, thus it would still fulfill the requirement of non-repetitiveness in the sense of $ \pi \not\in \{a/b\} \; \forall \; a,b \in \mathbb{N}$.
I wanted to know if this argument is reasonable and what you think about it.
@5xum As for your first remark:
Let that starting index be $\aleph_0$, the smallest infinite cardinal number.
As for your second remark:
Assume the $(n+1)$-th digit is $\aleph_0$.